MCQ Question Bank on Indian Penal Code for Exams [500+ Objective Questions with Answers]- Part 5

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For Question No. 1 to 100, click here.

For Question No. 101 to 200, click here.

For Question No. 201 to 300, click here.

For Question No. 301 to 400, click here.

401. Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who in self-defence and in order to ward off the attack, hits him thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence. Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under Section 98 of the Indian Penal Code:

(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (a)

402. The paddy lands of A and D lie adjacent to each other. The prosecution case that when D was deepening the channel on the boundary of his own land, the accused A pursuant to an altercation hit D hard on head by a spade that proved fatal.

A. the fact that the body of D lay on the land of A or the existence of any altercation between the two is not sufficient to proof the exercise of the right of self defence by A

B. the complainant party is in possession of the land and the accused party taking the law in hands attacks the complainant, does not entitle the accused A to right of private defence

C. Neither (A) nor (B)

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

403. False statement, rumour, etc, circulated with intent to cause mutiny or offence against the public peace is dealt under

A. Section 505 of IPC

B. Section 300 of IPC

C. Section 299 of IPC

D. Section 351 of IPC

Ans: A

404. A enters by night which he is legally entitled to enter. Z, in good faith mistaking A to be a burglar attacks him.

A. Z has no offence as he acts under misconception

B. Z is guilty

C. A has the same right of private defence against Z under the same circumstance

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans: D

405. A person with fraudulent intention going through the ceremony of being married knowing that he is not thereby lawfully married is dealt under

A. Section 493 of IPC

B. Section 494 of IPC

C. Section 495 of IPC

D. Section 496 of IPC

Ans: D

406. A is attacked by a mob who attempt to murder him. He cannot effectually exercise his right of private defence without firing on the mob, and he cannot fire without risk of harming young children who are mingled with the crowd.

A. A must not use his right to private defence

B. A will be guilty of manslaughter if he fires on the mob

C. A will not be committing any offence if he has to fire on the mob

D. None of them

Ans: C

407. Illegal payments in connection with elections is dealt un­der

A. Section 169 H of IPC

B. Section 170 H of IPC

C. Section 171 H of IPC

D. Section 172 H of IPC

Ans: C

408. Absconding to avoid service of summons or other pro­ceeding from a public servant is dealt under

A. Section 172 of IPC

B. Section 173 of IPC

C. Section 174 of IPC

D. Section 175 of IPC

Ans: A

409. Not obeying a legal order to attend at a certain place in person or by agent, or departing therefrom without author­ity is dealt under

A. Section 174 of IPC

B. Section 175 of IPC

C. Section 176 of IPC

D. Section 177 of IPC

Ans: A

410. Intentionally omitting to produce a document to a public servant by a person legally bound to produce or deliver such document is dealt under

A. Section 175 of IPC

B. Section 176 of IPC

C. Section 177 of IPC

D. Section 178 of IPC

Ans: A

411. Intentionally omitting to give notice or information to a public servant by a person legally bound to give such no­tice or information is dealt under

A. Section 174 of IPC

B. Section 175 of IPC

C. Section 176 of IPC

D. Section 177 of IPC

Ans: C

412. Intentional omitting to give notice or information to a public servant by a person legally bound to give such no­tice or information if the notice or information is required by an order passed under sub-section (1) of section 356 of this Code is dealt under

A. Section 176 of IPC

B. Section 177 of IPC

C. Section 178 of IPC

D. Section 179 of IPC

Ans: A

89. Knowingly furnishing false information to a public ser­vant, if the information required respects the commission of an offence etc is dealt under

A. Section 169 of IPC

B. Section 170 of IPC

C. Section 177 of IPC

D. Section 172 of IPC

Ans: C

414. Being legally bound to state truth and refusing to answer questions is dealt under

A. Section 179 of IPC

B. Section 180 of IPC

C. Section 181 of IPC

D. Section 182 of IPC

Ans: A

415. Knowingly stating to a public servant on oath as true that which is false is dealt under

A. Section 179 of IPC

B. Section 180 of IPC

C. Section 181 of IPC

D. Section 182 of IPC

Ans: C

416. Resistance to the taking of property by the lawful author­ity of a public servant is dealt under

A. Section 183 of IPC

B. Section 184 of IPC

C. Section 185 of IPC

D. Section 186 of IPC

Ans: A

417. Bidding by a person under a legal in capacity to purchase it for property at a lawfully authorized sale or bidding without intending to perform the obligation incurred thereby is dealt under

A. Section 183 of IPC

B. Section 184 of IPC

C. Section 185 of IPC

D. Section 186 of IPC

Ans: C

418. Preventing the service or the affixing of any summons of notice or the removal of it when it has been affixed or preventing a proclamation is dealt under

A. Section 171 of IPC

B. Section 172 of IPC

C. Section 173 of IPC

D. Section 174 of IPC

Ans: C

419. Failure to appear at specified place and specified time as required by a proclamation published under sub-section (1) of section 82 of this Code is dealt under

A. Section 172-AofIPC

B. Section 173-AofIPC

C. Section 174-AofIPC

D. Section 175-A of IPC

Ans: C

420. Which of the following not true of Section 75, IPC?

A. it provides for special maximum sentence

B. it provides for a minimum sentence

C. it is not incumbent in every case of a previous conviction that such conviction should be taken into account.

D. all of them

Ans: B

421. Which of the following may be said to be non-compos mentis (not of sound mind)?

A. drunk

B. Made non compos by illness

C. lunatic or a madman

D. all of them

Ans: D

422. To invoke the defence of insanity, which of the following must be clearly proved at the time of committing the act?

I. the accused was labouring under defect of reason

II. from disease of the mind

III. does not know the nature and quality of the act he was doing

IV. if he did know, he did not know what he was doing was wrong

A. I and IV

B. I and III

C. II, III and IV

D. I, II, III and IV

Ans: D

423. Assault or use of criminal force otherwise than on grave provocation is dealt under

A. Section 349 of IPC

B. Section 350 of IPC

C. Section 351 of IPC

D. Section 352 of IPC

Ans: D

424. Insanity is a valid defence on a charge of commission of an act prima facie criminal because of want of:

A. mens rea

B. actus reus

C. repondeat superior

D. none of them

Ans: A

425. Printing or enegrtacing matter knowing it to be defamatory against the president or the Vice- President or the Governor of a State or Administrator of a Union territory or a Min­ister in respect of his conduct in the discharge of his public functions when instituted upon a complaint made by the public prosecutor and Printing or engraving matter know­ing it to be defamatory in any other case is dealt under

A. Section 500 of IPC

B. Section 501 of IPC

C. Section 502 of IPC

D. Section 504 of IPC

Ans: B

426. Which of the following is true of people suffering from delirium tremens?

A. they are dangerous to themselves and others

B. they see various objects lying around or crawling about

C. he cannot be criminally held responsible for his acts

D. all of them

Ans: D

427. Attempt to commit robbery or dacoity when armed with deadly weapons is dealt under

A. Section 398 of IPC

B. Section 399 of IPC

C. Section 400 of IPC

D. Section 401 of IPC

Ans: A

428. In which of the following case voluntary drunkenness can be an excuse:

A. when the state of intoxication is such that the accused is incapable of forming the specific intent essential to constitute the crime

B. habitual drunkenness which results in a diseased condition of the mind that the accused is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that he is doing is either wrong to contrary to the law

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. Either (A) or (B)

Ans: C

429. In which of the following way Section 88 differs from Section 87?

A. under it any harm except death may be inflicted

B. the age of the person is not mentioned

C. the age of the consenting party must be at least twelve years

D. both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

430. Theft is dealt under

A. Section 376 of IPC

B. Section 377 of IPC

C. Section 378 of IPC

D. Section 379 of IPC

Ans: D

431. Which of the following is not a true consent as described in Section 90, IPC?

I. by a person under the fear of injury

II. by a person under a misconception

III. by a person of sound mind

IV.by a person who is intoxicated

V. by a person who is under twelve years of age

A. I, II

B. Ill

C. IV, V

D. I, II, IV, V

Ans: D

432. Harm in Section 94, IPC means:

A. injurious mental reaction

B. infectious mental disease

C. injurious mental condition

D. all of them

Ans: A

433. Which of the following is not pardonable under Section 94, IPC?

A. murder

B. offences against the state punishable with death

C. robbery

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

444. Theft by clerk or servant of property in possession of master or employer is dealt under

A. Section 380 of IPC

B. Section 381 of IPC

C. Section 382 of IPC

D. Section 383 of IPC

Ans: B

445. As per the Supreme Court the right of private defence is:

A. defensive right circumscribed by the statute

B. availed in the favour of the aggressor

C. available only when the circumstances clearly justifies it

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

446. On which of the general principle the Supreme Court held that the right to private defence rests?

A. where a crime is endeavoured to be committed by force, it is lawful to repeal that force in self defence

B. that a person could only claim the right to use force after he had sustained a serious injury by an aggressive wrongful assault

C. it is to protect the aggressor

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

447. A, a public officer is authorised by a warrant from a Court of Justice to apprehend Z. B, knowing that fact and also that C is not Z, wilfully represents to A that C is Z, and they intentionally causes A to apprehend C. Here:

A. A abets by instigation the apprehension of C

B. B abets by instigation the apprehension of C

C. B abets by instigation the apprehension of A

D. C abets by instigation the apprehension of Z

Ans: B

448. Kidnapping or obtaining the custody of a minor in order that such minor may be employed or used for purposes of begging is dealt under

A. Section 363A of IPC

B. Section 364A of IPC

C. Section 365A of IPC

D. Section 366A of IPC

Ans: A

449. Right of private defence is not available:

A. to the aggressor

B. to the person who is attacked

C. to the aggressor against an act done in private defence by the person attacked

D. only (a) & (c) are correct.

Ans. D

450. In a case of free fight between two parties:

A. right of private defence is available to both the parties

B. right of private defence is available to individuals against individual

C. no right of private defence is available to either party

D. right to private defence is available only to one party.

Ans. C

451. Under section 99, the right of private defence is:

A. not available at all against public servants engaged in the discharge of their lawful duties

B. available under all circumstances against public servants engaged in the discharge of their lawful duties

C. available against public servants only when their acts cause reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt

D. available against public servants only when their acts cause reasonable apprehension of damage to property.

Ans. C

552. Right to private defence under section 99:

A. extends to causing more harm than is necessary for the purpose of defence

B. does not extend to causing more harm than is necessary for the purpose of defence

C. does not extend to causing the harm necessary for the purpose of defence

D. restricts the harm caused to be less than the one necessary for the purpose of defence.

Ans. B

453. Right of private defence extends to causing death, under the circumstances laid down in:

A. sections 100 & 101 of IPC

B. sections 101 & 102 of IPC

C. sections 102 & 103 of IPC

D. sections 100 & 103 of IPC.

Ans. D

454. Right of private defence of the body extends to causing death has been dealt with under:

A. section 100 of IPC

B. section 101 of IPC

C. section 102 of IPC

D. section 103 of IPC.

Ans. A

455. Right of private defence of property extending to causing death has been dealt with under:

A. section 103 of IPC

B. section 102 of IPC

C. section 101 of IPC

D. section 100 of IPC.

Ans. A

456. In cases of assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or of grievous hurt, the right of private defence extends voluntarily:

A. causing grievous hurt

B. causing death

C. causing any harm other than death

D. causing any harm other than death or grievous hurt.

Ans. B

457. In cases of assault with intention of committing rape or of gratifying unnatural lust, the right of private defence extends voluntarily:

A. causing any harm including death

B. causing any harm other than death

C. causing any harm other than grievous hurt

D. both (b) & (c).

Ans. A

458. In cases of kidnapping & abduction the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing:

A. any harm other than death

B. any harm other than death & grievous hurt

C. any harm including death

D. both (a) & (b).

Ans. C

459. In cases of robbery or dacoity, the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing:

A. any harm including death

B. any harm other than death

C. any harm other than grievous hurt

D. both (b) & (c).

Ans. A

460. Where a wrong doer commits house breaking by night, the right to private defence extends to voluntarily causing:

A. any harm other than death

B. any harm including death

C. any harm other than death and grievous hurt

D. either (a) or (c).

Ans. B

461. Where a wrong leads to mischief by fire on a building used as a human dwelling or a place for custody of property the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing:

A. any harm including death

B. any harm other than death

C. any harm other than death & grievous hurt

D. either (b) or (c).

Ans. A

462. Under section 102 of IPC the right to private defence of the body:

A. commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises and continues as long as that apprehension continues

B. commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises and continues even after that apprehension ceases

C. commences only when the assault is actually done & continues during the period of assault

D. commences only when the assault is actually done & continues after the assailant has left.

Ans. A

463. Under section 105 of IPC, the right of private defence of property in cases of theft commences when a reasonable apprehension of danger to the property commences and:

A. continues till the offender has effected his retreat with the property

B. continues till the assistance of public authorities is obtained

C. continues till the property has been recovered

D. all the above.

Ans. D

464. Section 106 of IPC extends the right of private defence, in case of apprehension of death, to causing:

A. any harm other than death to any innocent person

B. any harm other than grievous hurt to any innocent person

C. any harm including death to any innocent person

D. none of the above.

Ans. C

465. Chapter V of Indian Penal Code deals with:

A. abetment

B. attempt

C. elections

D. religion.

Ans. A

466. Right of private defence is not available:

A. against any act which in itself is not an offence

B. against any act which is not legal wrong

C. against any act which is a moral wrong

D. all the above.

Ans. D

467. Section 97 of IPC extends the right of private defence of property, to the offence of:

A. cheating

B. misappropriation

C. theft & robbery

D. criminal breach of trust.

Ans. C

468. Abetment under section 107 of IPC can be constituted by:

A. instigation

B. conspiracy

C. intentional aid

D. all the above.

Ans. D

469. Abettor is a person:

A. who commits the offence

B. who instigates the commission of offence

C. against whom the offence is committed

D. who is innocent.

Ans. B

470. For abetment:

A. it is necessary that the act abetted should be committed successfully

B. it is necessary that the act abetted should be committed though unsuccessfully

C. it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed

D. both (a) & (b).

Ans. C

471. For abetment:

A. it is necessary that the person abetted should be capable of committing on offence under the law

B. it is necessary that the person abetted should have the same guilty intention

C. it is not necessary that the person abetted should be capable of committing an offence under the law or should have the same guilty intention

D. both (a) & (b).

Ans. C

472. Under Indian Penal Code, there can be abetment to:

A. a person of unsound mind

B. an infant

C. both (a) & (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. C

473. Abetment of an offence is:

A. always an offence

B. never an offence

C. may be an offence depending on the circumstances but not always

D. may not be an offence depending on the circumstances.

Ans. A

474. If the act abetted is committed in consequence, the abettor is punishable with punishment provided for the offence:

A. if the offence committed is the same as abetted

B. if the offence committed is different from the one abetted, for the offence committed

C. if the doer commits the offence with different intention than the abettor

D. all the above.

Ans. D

475. Abetment by instigation may be:

A. by words spoken

B. by letters

C. by conduct

D. all the above.

Ans. D

476. Abetment is complete as soon as:

A. the abettor has incited another to commit an offence

B. the person instigated has done some overt act towards the commission of the offence

C. the offence abetted has been committed

D. both (b) & (c) above.

Ans. A

477. X ordered his employee Y to beat Z. Y refuses. Now:

A. X has committed abetment & Y has committed assault

B. X has committed abetment & Y has committed no offence

C. X & Y both have committed no offence

D. X has committed no offence but Y has committed offence of subordination.

Ans. B

478. No criminal liability for abetment arises:

A. if the act abetted is an offence

B. if the act abetted is not an offence

C. if the act abetted is morally wrong

D. both (b) & (c).

Ans. D

479. Conspiracy has been defined as an agreement between two or more persons to do an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, under:

A. section 120B of IPC

B. section 120A of IPC

C. section 120 of IPC

D. section 121A of IPC.

Ans. B

480. For conspiracy, the minimum number of persons required is:

A. one

B. five

C. two

D. no minimum requirement.

Ans. C

481. Under criminal conspiracy:

A. mere agreement is made an offence even if no step is taken to carry out that agreement

B. mere agreement is not made an offence unless a step is taken to carry out that agreement

C. both (a) & (b) are correct.

D. neither (a) nor (b) is correct.

Ans. A

482. Conspiracy to wage war against Government of India has been dealt with under:

A. section 120 of IPC

B. section 120A of IPC

C. section 120B of IPC

D. section 121A of IPC.

Ans. D

483. Sedition has been defined as bringing or attempt to bring hatred or contempt, or exciting or attempt to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law in India, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs or visible representation or otherwise, under:

A. section 120 of IPC

B. section 120A of IPC

C. section 121A of IPC

D. section 124A of IPC.

Ans. D

484. Disaffection within section 124A of IPC includes:

A. disloyalty and all feelings of enmity

B. disapprobation of the measures of the Government not exciting any contempt

C. disapprobation of the administrative measures

D. all the above.

Ans. A

485. For an unlawful assembly under section 141 of IPC, the minimum number of persons required is:

A. five

B. seven

C. ten

D. twenty.

Ans. A

486. For an assembly to be unlawful, must have a common object of the kind specified in:

A. section 141 of IPC

B. section 140 of IPC

C. section 142 of IPC

D. section 144 of IPC.

Ans. A

487. Which of the following is not specified to be the common object of an assembly to make it unlawful, under section 141 of IPC:

A. overawing the Government or its officers

B. resistance to legal process

C. forcible possession or dispossession of property

D. none of the above.

Ans. D

488. In which recent case the meaning and rationale of “preventive detection” is being discussed in the Constitution or statute:

A. State of Maharashtra v. Bhalurao Runjabrao Gawande

B. Rajinder Arora v. Union of India.

C. Naresh Kumar Goel v. Union of India

D. A.K. Ray v. Union of India.

Ans. A

489. Article 21 now protects the right to life and personal liberty of citizens not only from executive action but also from legislative action. The case is:

A. Minerva Mills

B. A.K. Gopalan

C. Maneka Gandhi

D. Keshvananda Bharti.

Ans. C

490. Under Indian Constitution which is not a specific ground on which the State can place restriction on freedom of religion:

A. public order

B. morality

C. social Justice

D. health.

Ans. C

491. Arrange the decisions of the Supreme Court on Fundamental Right relating to personal liberty in correct chronological sequence:

(1) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI

(2) A.DM fabalpur v. Shiv Kant Shukla

(3) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

Codes –

A. 3, 2, 1.

B. 2, 1, 3

C. 2, 3, 1

D. 1, 2, 3.

Ans. A

492. An accused person has been provided with the following protections by Constitution of India:

(1) ex post facto law

(2) safeguard against arrest and detention

(3) double jeopardy

Codes –

A. 1, 3, 2

B. 1, 2, 3

C. 3, 1, 2

D. 2, 1, 3

Ans. A

493. Two persons namely J and N who received different kinds of injuries by different kinds of weapons succumbed to the injuries and another person Y was seriously wounded on receiving different kinds of injuries. Seven persons were accused in this case. The defence plea was that only two accused persons were there along with the victim who attacked the two accused persons who caused death of the victim in self defence. Which of the following Court gave the appropriate verdict?

A. Court A overruled the plea of self defence convicted the seven accused persons.

B. Court B reversed the Court A’s decision and accepted the plea of private defence

C. Court C reversed the Court B’s decision and convicted all the seven persons

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

494. Z under the influence of madness attempts to kill A.

A. Z is not guilty

B. A has the same right of private defence as Z

C. Z is guilty

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans. D

495. Same offence with concealment of the former marriage from the person with whom subsequent marriage is contracted is dealt under-

A. Section 493 of IPC

B. Section 494 of IPC

C. Section 495 of IPC

D. Section 496 of IPC

Ans. C

496. Adultery is dealt under-

A. Section 497 of IPC

B. Section 498 of IPC

C. Section 498A of IPC

D. Section 500 of IPC

Ans. A

497. The accused discharged the first shot as he was about to be assaulted after his father had been struck to death. The assailants had come armed with both sticks and battle- axes. The only weapon in the hand of the accused was a gun.

A. the accused rightly exercised the right of private defence

B. the ingredients of Section 106, IPC are fully satisfied

C. neither (A) nor (B)

D. both (A) and (B)

Ans. D

498. Failure to keep election accounts is dealt under-

A. Section 170 F of IPC

B. Section 170 G of IPC

C. Section 171 H of IPC

D. Section 171 I of IPC

Ans. D

499. Non-appearance in a case where declaration has been made under sub-section (4) of section 82 of this Code pronouncing a person as proclaimed offender is dealt under-

A. Section 171-A of IPC

B. Section 172-A of IPC

C. Section 173-A of IPC

D. Section 174-A of IPC

Ans. D

500. Refusing oath when duly require to take oath by public servant is dealt under-

A. Section 175 of IPC

B. Section 176 of IPC

C. Section 177 of IPC

D. Section 178 of IPC

Ans. D

501. Refusing to sign a statement made to a public servant when legally required to do so is dealt under-

A. Section 169 of IPC

B. Section 180 of IPC

C. Section 171 of IPC

D. Section 172 of IPC

Ans. B

502. Giving false information to a public servant in order to cause him to use his lawful power to the injury or annoyance of any person is dealt under-

A. Section 180 of IPC

B. Section 181 of IPC

C. Section 182 of IPC

D. Section 183 of IPC

Ans. D

503. Obstructing sale of property offered for sale by authority of a public servant is dealt under-

A. Section 183 of IPC

B. Section 184 of IPC

C. Section 185 of IPC

D. Section 186 of IPC

Ans. B

504. If summons or notice requires attendance in person etc., in a court of justice is dealt under-

A. Section 171 of IPC

B. Section 172 of IPC

C. Section 173 of IPC

D. Section 174 of IPC

Ans. B

505. Which of the following is not a part of Section 73, IPC?

A. a time of solitary confinement not exceeding one month shall not exceed six months

B. a time of solitary confinement not exceeding two months shall exceed six months but not one year

C. a time of solitary confinement not exceeding three months shall exceed one year

D. a time of solitary confinement not exceeding four months shall exceed one year but not 2 years

Ans. D

506. Which of the following is needed to bring an offence within the terms of Section 75, IPC?

A. it must be one under either Chapter XII or Chapter XVIII of the Code

B. the previous conviction must have been for an offence therein punishable with imprisonment for not less than three years

C. the subsequent offence must also be punishable with imprisonment for not less than three years

D. all of them

Ans. D

507. In which of the following way Section 76, IPC and Section 79, IPC differs from one another?

A. In the Section 76, IPC a person is assumed to be bound while in Section 79, IPC, the person is assumed to be justified by law

B. In the Section 76, IPC a person is assumed to be justified while in Section 79, IPC, the person is assumed to be bound by law

C. In the Section 76, IPC a person is assumed to be both bound and justified while in Section 79, IPC, the person is assumed only to be bound by law

D. None of them

Ans. A

508. Wrongful confinement for the purpose of extorting confession or information, or of compelling restoration of property, etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 346 of IPC

B. Section 347 of IPC

C. Section 348 of IPC

D. Section 349 of IPC

Ans. C

509. In case the accused is not able to establish conclusively that he was insane at the time he committed the offence, which of the following will be true to entitle the Court to acquit the accused on the ground that the general burden of proof resting on the prosecution was not discharged?

A. the evidence placed before the Court by the accused may raise a reasonable doubt in the mind of the Court as regards one or more of the ingredients of the offence including mens rea of the accused

B. the evidence placed before the Court by the prosecution may raise a reasonable doubt in the mind of the Court as regards one or more of the ingredients of the offence including mens rea of the accused

C. Either (A) or (B)

D. None of then

Ans. C

510. It was found that disclosure statement made by the deceased led to the recovery of gold ornaments worn by the deceased, weapons used in crime and blood stained clothes of accused. In which of following cases the conviction was held by the court as proper under Section 302 of IPC.?

A. Om Prakash v. State of Haryana (1979)

B. Geijaganda Somaiah v. State of Karnataka (2007)

C. Narayanan v. State of Kerala (1987)

D. Mehtab Singh v. State of U.P (1979)

Ans. B

511. Which of the following can be categorised as types of insanity?

I. Melancholia

II. Mania

III. Monomania

IV. Dementia

V. Idiocy

A. I, IV and V

B. II, and V

C. III, IV and V

D. all of them

Ans. D

512. Robbery or dacoity, with attempt to cause death or grievous hurt is dealt under-

A. Section 394 of IPC

B. Section 395 of IPC

C. Section 396 of IPC

D. Section 397 of IPC

Ans. C

513. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it is by reason of intoxication of, incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that he is doing what is wrong, or contrary to the law, provided the intoxication was:

A. self-administered

B. administered against his knowledge

C. administered against his will

D. both (B) and (C)

Ans. D

514. The rule volenti non fit injura is based on which of the following proposition?

A. every person is the best judge of his own interest

B. no man will consent to do what he thinks is hurtful to himself

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans. C

515. Unnatural offences is dealt under-

A. Section 375 of IPC

B. Section 376 of IPC

C. Section 377 of IPC

D. Section 378 of IPC

Ans. C

516. Which of the following case the exception in Section 89, IPC cannot be extended?

I. intentional causing of death or to the attempting to cause death

II. doing of anything which the person knows to be likely to cause death, for any purpose other than the preventing of death or grievous hurt, or the curing of any grievous disease or infirmity

III. voluntary causing of grievous hurt or to the attempting to cause grievous hurt, unless it be for the purpose of preventing of death or grievous hurt, or the curing of any grievous disease or infirmity

IV. abetment of any offence

A. I, II and IV

B. III, IV and IV

C. IV only

D. all of them

Ans. D

517. The principal object of Section 88, 89 and 92 of the IPC is:

A. protection of medical practitioners

B. protection of chemists

C. protection of pharmacists

D. all of them

Ans. A

518. Section 94, IPC is based on the principle:

A. actus reus invito (factus) non est mens actus

B. mens rea invito (factus) non est mens actus

C. actus me invito (factus) non est mens actus

D. none of them

Ans. C

519. Theft in a building, tent or vessel is dealt under-

A. Section 380 of IPC

B. Section 381 of IPC

C. Section 382 of IPC

D. Section 383 of IPC

Ans. A

520. Which of the following are the limits which dictate the right of private defence?

A. that the same right is claimed by all other members of the society

B. that it is the State which generally undertakes the responsibility for the maintenance of law and order

C. Either (A) or (B)

D. Both of them

Ans. D

521. Right to private defence cannot be used for which of the following purpose?

A. vindictive

B. aggressive

C. retributive

D. all of them

Ans. D

522. In which of the following factor is important to appropriately determine the right to private defence?

I. the injuries received by the accused

II. the immense of threat to his safety

III. the injuries caused by the accused

IV. the circumstances whether the accused had time to recourse to public authorities

A. I

B. I, II

C. I, III, IV

D. I, II, III, IV

Ans. D

523. A instigates B to instigate C to murder Z. B accordingly instigates C to murder Z, and C commits that offence in consequence of B’s instigation.

A. Only A is liable to punishment

B. Only B is liable to punishment

C. Only C is liable to punishment

D. all of them

Ans. D

524. Maiming a minor in order that such minor may be employed or used for purposes of begging is dealt under-

A. Section 362 A of IPC

B. Section 363 A of IPC

C. Section 364 A of IPC

D. Section 365 A of IPC

Ans. B

525. A instigates B to give false evidence. B in consequence of the instigation commits that offence.

A. Only B is liable to the punishment

B. A is not liable to same punishment as B

C. A is guilty of abetment and is liable to the same punishment as B

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

526. A instigates B to resist by force a distress made by a public servant, knowing full well that B most likely will cause hurt in the process. Hence B in consequence, resists that distress. In offering the resistance, B voluntarily causes grievous hurt to the officer executing the distress.

A. B is liable to punishment for resisting the distress only

B. B is liable to punishment for causing hurt

C. Both A and B are liable to punishment for resisting the distress

D. Both A and B are responsible for resisting the distress and causing hurt to A

Ans. D

527. A instigates B to murder Z. However the offence is not committed. If B had murdered Z, which of the following is true about this case?

A. He would be subject to death penalty or life imprisonment

B. A would have been liable to a term of seven years also to a fine

C. A would have been liable to a life term including fine

D. All of them

Ans. D

528. Intercourse by a man with his wife not being under twelve years of age is dealt under-

A. Section 375 of IPC

B. Section 376 of IPC

C. Section 377 of IPC

D. Section 378 of IPC

Ans. B

529. Consider the two cases:

I. A, a police officer, whose duty is to prevent robbery, abets the commission of robbery. However the robbery is not committed.

II. A, abets the commission of a robbery by B, a police officer, who duty is to prevent the offence. However the robbery is not committed.

Which of the following is true about the above cases?

A. Only B is liable to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment

B. A is liable to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence of robbery and also to fine

C. A is liable to a fine only

D. None of them

Ans. B

530. Theft after preparation having been made for causing death, or hurt or restraint or fear of death, or of hurt or of restraint, in order to the committing of such theft, or to retiring after committing it, or to retaining property taken by it is dealt under-

A. Section 380 of IPC

B. Section 381 of IPC

C. Section 382 of IPC

D. Section 383 of IPC

Ans. C

531. A, knowing that dacoity is about to be committed at B, falsely informs the Magistrate that a dacoity is about to be committed at C, a place in an opposite direction and thereby misleads the Magistrate with intent to facilitate the commission of the offence.

A. A should be punished under Section 115, IPC

B. A should be punished under Section 116, IPC

C. A should be punished under Section 117, IPC

D. A should be punished under Section 118, IPC

Ans. D

532. A being legally bound to appear before the High Court at Calcutta, in obedience to a subpoena issuing from that Court intentionally omits to appear.

A. A has committed an offence under Section 174, IPC

B. A has committed an offence under Section 175, IPC

C. A has committed an offence under Section 176, IPC

D. A has committed an offence under Section 177, IPC

Ans. A

533. Procreation of minor girl is dealt under-

A. Section 364 A of IPC

B. Section 365 A of IPC

C. Section 366 A of IPC

D. Section 367 A of IPC

Ans. C

534. Intentional omission to give information of an offence by a person legally bound to inform is dealt under-

A. Section 202 of IPC

B. Section 203 of IPC

C. Section 204 of IPC

D. Section 205 of IPC

Ans. A

535. An order is promulgated by a public servant lawfully empowered to promulgate such order, directing that a religious procession shall not pass down a certain street. A knowingly disobeys the order, and thereby causes danger of riot.

A. A has committed the offence under Section 150, IPC

B. A has committed the offence under Section 160, IPC

C. A has committed the offence under Section 178, IPC

D. A has committed the offence under Section 188, IPC

Ans. D

536. A, being bound by an oath to state the truth, states that he believes a certain signature to be the handwriting of Z, when he does not believe it to be the handwriting of Z. Here if A gives evidence against Z then:

A. A’s evidence is true

B. A’s evidence is false

C. Z’s evidence is false

D. None of them

Ans. B

References and Sources

  • https://bit.ly/3yUROsK
  • https://bit.ly/3c2ocjS
  • https://bit.ly/3Pc7ZHl

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