MCQ Question Bank on Indian Penal Code for Exams [500+ Objective Questions with Answers]- Part 2

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For Question No. 1 to 100, click here.

101. What should be the age of minor to constitute the offence of kidnapping:

(a) 16 years

(b) 18 years

(c) below 16 years in case of male and below 18 years in case of female

(d) Below 18 years in case of male and below 21 years in case of female.

Ans. (c)

102. ‘A’ having joint property with Z in a horse, intending thereby to cause wrongful loss to Z, shoots the horse. Under what section of I.P.C. ‘A’ shall be charged with:

(a) Section 426

(b) Section 429

(c) Section 437

(d) Section 438.

Ans. (b)

103. ‘A’ has consensual sexual relations with ‘Z’s wife. She gives to ‘A’ a valuable property which ‘A’ knows to belong to her husband ‘Z’ and she has no authority from ‘Z’ to give. ‘A’ takes the property dishonestly. Which one of the following offences has been committed by ‘A’:

(a) Criminal breach of trust

(b) Theft and criminal breach of trust

(c) Theft

(d) Criminal misappropriation.

Ans. (c)

104. Adultery is an offence committed:

(a) with the consent of a married woman

(b) with the consent of a woman

(c) without the consent of a woman but with the consent of her husband

(d) with the consent of a minor girl.

Ans. (a)

105. The expression “unsoundness of mind”:

(a) is not defined in I.P.C.

(b) is defined in I.P.C.

(c) is not treated as equivalent to insanity

(d) is not general exception in I.P.C.

Ans. (a)

106. State of A.P. v. R. Punnayya case deals with distinction between which of following sections of Indian Penal Code:

(a) Sections 501 and 502

(b) Sections 299 and 300

(c) Sections 304A and 304B

(d) Sections 305 and 306.

Ans. (b)

107. Which sections of Indian Penal Code provides for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air Force:

(a) Sections 171A to 171-1

(b) Sections 124 to 129

(c) Sections 131 to 140

(d) Sections 165 to 171.

Ans. (c)

108. In which case the court made a clear distinction between ‘common intention’ and ‘similar intention’:

(a) Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. King Emperor

(b) Mahboob Shah v. King Emperor

(c) Kripal Singh v. State of U.P.

(d) Rishi Deo Pandey v. State of U.P.

Ans. (b)

109. Which is not the ‘stolen property’:

(a) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating

(b) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery

(c) Possession whereof was obtained by extortion

(d) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal breach of trust.

Ans. (a)

110. In which of the following cases, the offence of ‘house-breaking’ is committed:

(a) A commits house-trespass by entering Z’s house through the door, having lifted a latch by putting a wire through a hole in the door

(b) A finds the key of Z’s house-door, which Z had lost, and commits house-trespass, by entering Z’s house through that key

(c) Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing in Y’s doorway. A commits house-trespass by entering the house, having deterred Z from opposing him by threatening to beat him

(d) All these.

Ans. (d)

111. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer:

A. All the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013

B. Some of the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013

C. Most of the recommendations of Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013

D. None of the above.

Ans. D

112. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:

A. Section 376A

B. Section 376B

C. Sections 166A, 166B, 354C

D. All of the above.

Ans. D

113. According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right is the act of:

A. Stalking

B. Voyeurism

C. Acid Attack

D. All of the above.

Ans. C

114. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:

A. Section 326A

B. Section 326B

C. Section 228A

D. Section 228.

Ans. B

115. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable offence under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:

A. Section 354A

B. Section 354B

C. Section 354C

D. Section 354D.

Ans. A

116. A man shall be guilty of the offence of sexual harassment under section 354A of Indian Penal Code, 1860, if he commits:

(i) Physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and explicit sexual overtures.

(ii) A demand or request for sexual favours.

(iii) Showing pornography against the will of a woman.

(iv) Making sexually coloured remarks.

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iii)

C. (i), (ii) and (iii)

D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Ans. D

117. A man is said to commit “rape” if he penetrates his penis, to any extent, into the ________ of a woman:

A. Vagina

B. Mouth

C. Urethra or Anus

D. All of the above.

Ans. D

118. When a man inserts, to any extent, any object or a part of the body, not being the penis, into the vagina, the urethra or anus of a woman or makes her to do so with him or any other person, he commits:

A. Rape

B. Sexual Harassment

C. Sexual Assault

D. None of the above.

Ans. A

119. To establish section 34 of IPC:

A. common intention be proved but not overt act be proved

B. common intention and overt act both be proved

C. common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved

D. all the above.

Ans. A

120. Section 34 of IPC:

A. creates a substantive offence

B. is a rule of evidence

C. both (a) and (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. B

121. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. Y killed ‘Z’:

A. only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of Z

B. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’

C. ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform any overt act

D. both (a) & (c).

Ans. B

122. ‘Voluntarily’ has been defined as an effect caused by means whereby a person intended to cause it or by means, at the time of employing those means, know or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it under:

A. section 39

B. section 38

C. section 37

D. section 40.

Ans. A

123. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:

A. life of a human being

B. life of an animal

C. life of human being and of an animal both

D. life of either human being or animal.

Ans. A

124. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:

A. death of a human being

B. death of an animal

C. death of a human being and of an animal both

D. death of either human being or an animal.

Ans. A

125. Illegal signifies:

A. everything which is an offence

B. everything which is prohibited by law

C. everything which furnishes ground for civil action

D. all the above.

Ans. D

126. Animal denotes:

A. any living creature including human being

B. any living creature other than a human being

C. any creature – live or dead

D. either (a) or (c).

Ans. B

127. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code:

A. three

B. six

C. five

D. four.

Ans. C

128. Under section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of imprisonment, the sentence of imprisonment:

A. has to be wholly rigorous

B. has to be wholly simple

C. can be partly rigorous and partly simple

D. either (a) or (b).

Ans. C

129. Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under section 64 of IPC:

A. shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been sentenced

B. shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment

C. shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment

D. both (b) & (c).

Ans. A

130. Under section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall be limited to:

A. one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence

B. one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence

C. one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence

D. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.

Ans. B

131. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of fine:

A. has to be rigorous

B. has to be simple

C. can be rigorous or simple

D. can be partly rigorous and partly simple.

Ans. B

132. Under section 498A of IPC cruelty includes:

A. harassment of the woman

B. physical cruelty only

C. mental cruelty only

D. cruelty by wife.

Ans. A

133. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs. 50, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:

A. two months

B. three months

C. four months

D. six months.

Ans. C

134. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine exceeding Rs. 100, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:

A. one year

B. six months

C. four months

D. two months.

Ans. B

135. Section 64 of IPC provides for:

A. nature & maximum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine

B. nature & minimum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine

C. nature but does not prescribe any limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine

D. limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine but does not prescribe the nature of imprisonment.

Ans. C

136. Imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall terminate:

A. on payment of fine

B. on expiry of the term of imprisonment for non-payment

C. both (a) & (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. C

137. In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a part of the fine is paid, such sentence:

A. shall be reduced proportionately

B. shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid

C. shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to the quantum of reduction

D. all of the above.

Ans. A

138. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be:

A. one year

B. two years

C. three months

D. six months.

Ans. C

139. If an offender has been sentenced to imprisonment not exceeding six months, the solitary confinement:

A. shall not exceed 15 days

B. shall not exceed one month

C. shall not exceed two months

D. shall not exceed forty-five days.

Ans. B

140. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding six months but not exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement:

A. shall not exceed one month

B. shall not exceed forty-five days

C. shall not exceed two months

D. shall not exceed three months.

Ans. C

141. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement shall not exceed:

A. one month

B. two months

C. three months

D. six months.

Ans. C

142. Nothing is said to be done or believed to be done in goodfaith which is done or believed without due care & intention – is the definition of goodfaith contained in:

A. section 29 of IPC

B. section 29A of IPC

C. section 52 of IPC

D. section 52A of IPC.

Ans. C

143. General exceptions are contained in:

A. chapter III of IPC

B. chapter IV of IPC

C. chapter V of IPC

D. chapter VI of IPC.

Ans. B

144. Section 76 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or who by reason of:

A. mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it

B. mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it

C. mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it

D. all the above.

Ans. A

145. Under section 79, nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is justified by law or who by reason of mistake of fact in goodfaith believes himself to be:

A. bound by law to do it

B. justified by law to do it

C. bound by morality to do it

D. all the above.

Ans. B

146. The maximum ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means:

A. ignorance of law is no excuse

B. ignorance of fact is no excuse

C. ignorance of law is an excuse

D. ignorance of fact is an excuse.

Ans. A

147. Section 76 & section 79 of IPC provide the general exception of:

A. mistake of law

B. mistake of fact

C. both mistake of law and fact

D. either mistake of law or of fact.

Ans. B

148. Accident as an exception has been dealt with in:

A. section 77

B. section 78

C. section 80

D. section 82.

Ans. C

149. Under section 80, the exception of accident is available when an offence is committed while:

A. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means

B. doing a lawful act in any manner by any means

C. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by any means

D. all the above.

Ans. A

150. The principle as to the way in which a man should behave when he has to make a choice between two evils is illustrated in:

A. section 80 of IPC

B. section 81 of IPC

C. section 82 of IPC

D. section 78 of IPC.

Ans. B

151. Who was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian Penal Code?

A. Lord William Bentinck

B. Lord Curzon

C. Lord Macaulay

D. Lord Irwin

Ans. C

152. Assault or use of criminal force on a woman with intent to outrage her modesty is dealt under-

A. Section 354 of IPC

B. Section 355 of IPC

C. Section 356 of IPC

D. Section 357 of IPC

Ans. A

153. Under which name the Indian Penal Code came into application in Jammu and Kashmir?

A. Indian Legislative Act

B. Ranbir Penal Code

C. Indian Penal Act

D. Mahomedan Act

Ans. B

154. Assault or use of criminal force in an attempt to wrongfully confine a person is dealt under-

A. Section 357 of IPC

B. Section 358 of IPC

C. Section 359 of IPC

D. Section 360 of IPC

Ans. A

155. Which of the following is the principle applied in construing a penal Act?

A. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved against the person who would be liable to the penalty.

B. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved in the favour of the person who would be liable to the penalty.

C. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract life imprisonment.

D. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract capital punishment.

Ans. B

156. Which of the following matches is incorrect relative to the use of the English law?

A. Sections 96 to 106 of the Code – can be interpreted on the basis of principles governing self defence under the English law

B. Reliance on case decided under the English law – misleading

C. In defamation cases the court must with reference – Section 499

D. Indian Penal Code is based on – English Common Law in respect to the major offences which are universally applicable

Ans. A

157. Putting or attempting to put a person in fear of death or grievous hurt in order to commit extortion is dealt under-

A. Section 385 of IPC

B. Section 386 of IPC

C. Section 387 of IPC

D. Section 388 of IPC

Ans. C

158. actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea means?

A. a deed, a material result of human conduct

B. the intent and act must both concur to constitute the crime

C. putting to death

D. uncommended manner

Ans. B

159. X added potassium cyanide into Y’s drink intending to kill him. However, Z also happened to sip from Y’s glass. They both died. The medical report claimed that Y actually died of a cardiac arrest, as the poisonous substance administered was insufficient to cause his death. In addition, Z died due to the effect of the poison. So:

A. X is liable for the death of Y and not for the death of Z

B. X is not liable for the death neither of Y nor of Z

C. X is liable for the death of both Y and Z

D. X is liable for the death of Z only

Ans. B

160. Cheating and thereby dishonesty inducing delivery of property, or the making alteration or destruction of a valuable security is dealt under-

A. Section 417 of IPC

B. Section 418 of IPC

C. Section 419 of IPC

D. Section 420 of IPC

Ans. D

161. Literally, mens rea means:

A. guilty mind

B. a guilty or a wrongful purpose

C. a criminal intent, a guilty knowledge and wilfulness

D. All of the above

Ans. D

162. The appellant stabbed the deceased in the abdomen. The deceased was taken promptly to hospital and the wound was stitched but few days later he died. The evidence showed that at the time of death the wound had healed. But due to terramycin injection being given in excess lungs had become over logged and caused pneumonia on the question of causation:

A. The appellant can be acquitted

B. The appellant cannot be acquitted

C. The appellant and the doctor both cannot be acquitted

D. The doctor must be acquitted

Ans. A

163. Habitually dealing in stolen property is dealt under-

A. Section 411 of IPC

B. Section 412 of IPC

C. Section 413 of IPC

D. Section 414 of IPC

Ans. C

164. Cheating is dealt under-

A. Section 417 of IPC

B. Section 418 of IPC

C. Section 419 of IPC

D. Section 420 of IPC

Ans. A

165. Even though a man’s knowledge that a particular consequence will probably result from his act is sometimes an insufficient basis for saying that he intends it, there are strong reasons for holding that as a legal matter he can be held to intend something that he knows for sure he is doing. This is called:

A. skewed intent

B. oblique intent

C. hypothetical intent

D. square intent

Ans. B

166. In which of the following cases mens rea is not an essential ingredient for offences under-

A. Revenues Acts

B. Public nuisance

C. Criminal case which are in summary mode

D. All of these

Ans. D

167. During house trespass or house-breaking in order to the commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment and if the offence is theft is dealt under-

A. Section 169 of IPC

B. Section 170 of IPC

C. Section 171 of IPC

D. Section 454 of IPC

Ans. D

168. Defamation against the President or the Governor of a State or Administrator of a Union Territory or Minister in respect of his conduct in the discharge of his public functions when instituted upon a complaint made by the Public Prosecutor is dealt under-

A. Section 497 of IPC

B. Section 498 of IPC

C. Section 498A of IPC

D. Section 500 of IPC

Ans. D

169. A had an argument with B and asked her to go leave him alone and go home. B refused and A struck her on the head and rendered her unconscious. A dragged B to the parking lot during which B’s head hit the pavement which caused her death.

A. A is not responsible for her death as that was not the intent

B. A is only responsible for assaulting her

C. A is responsible for B’s death as the death was caused due A’s negligence

D. None of them

Ans. C

170. Presumption of culpable mental state of a person as per Section 10-C of the IPC includes:

I. Intention

II. Motive

III. Knowledge of fact

IV. Belief in or reason to believe a fact

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II, III and IV only

D. I, II, III and IV

Ans. D

171. Grievous hurt caused whilst committing lurking house trespass or house breaking is dealt under-

A. Section 458 of IPC

B. Section 459 of IPC

C. Section 460 of IPC

D. Section 461 of IPC

Ans. B

172. Dishonesty breaking open or unfastening any closed receptacle containing or supposed to contain property is dealt under-

A. Section 458 of IPC

B. Section 459 of IPC

C. Section 460 of IPC

D. Section 461 of IPC

Ans. D

173. A President of a Pharmaceutical Company for introducing into interstate commerce drugs that were misbranded. The President pleaded lack of knowledge of this fact?

A. The President must be convicted

B. The President must be acquitted

C. The President and the company must be convicted

D. none of them

Ans. A

174. False statement, rumour, etc, with intent to create enmity, hatred or ill-will between different classes is dealt under-

A. Section 169 of IPC

B. Section 505 of IPC

C. Section 171 of IPC

D. Section 172 of IPC

Ans. B

175. X an employee of Y was driving the vehicle which was without insurance. Y was convicted for violation of Road Traffic Act, 1988, who was not even driving the vehicle at that time. Y appealed against it in the court.

A. the conviction should be upheld

B. the conviction must be set aside

C. both the X and Y must be convicted

D. only X must be convicted

Ans. B

176. The question whether a corporate body should or should not be liable for criminal action resulting from the acts of some individuals must depend on:

A. nature of the offense disclosed by the allegations in the complaint or in the charge sheet

B. the relative position of the officer or agent vis-a-vis the corporate body

C. other relevant facts and circumstances which could show the corporate body as such meant or intended to commit that act

D. all of them

Ans. D

177. Automation in legal sense implies:

A. self-acting of performance or involuntary acts

B. without any knowledge of acting or action

C. with no consciousness of what is being done

D. all of them

Ans. D

178. Which of the following is false about the presumption of innocence?

A. this holds good in all kinds of trials including criminal trials

B. in this case the crime must be brought to a prisoner

C. it can be easily rebutted

D. graver the crime, greater will be the degree of doubt that is reasonable

Ans. C

179. Which of the following is pointed out by the Supreme Court regarding the rejection of the prosecution case on paltry ground?

A. The public are generally reluctant to come forward to depose before the court hence it not correct to reject the prosecution version on the ground that all witnesses to the occurrences have not been examined.

B. Invariably the witnesses add embroidery to the prosecution story, perhaps for the fear of disbelief, which is not a ground to throw the case overboard.

C. It is not proper to reject the case for want of corroboration by the independent witnesses if the case made out is otherwise true or acceptable.

D. All of them

Ans. D

180. Enticing or taking away or detaining with a criminal intent a married woman is dealt under-

A. Section 497 of IPC

B. Section 498 of IPC

C. Section 498A of IPC

D. Section 500 of IPC

Ans. B

181. Which of the following is not true of the absence of explanation from the accused?

A. it is not sufficient to rebut so strong a presumption as that of innocence

B. it is capable of being taken into account to corroborate other evidence

C. proof of guilt can be inferred from the mere absence of explanation

D. it is not material

Ans. C

182. Forgery is dealt under-

A. Section 464 of IPC

B. Section 465 of IPC

C. Section 466 of IPC

D. Section 467 of IPC

Ans. B

183. Having possession of a document, knowing it to be forged, with intent to use it as genuine; if the document is one of the description mentioned in section 466 of the Indian Penal Code is dealt under-

A. Section 471 of IPC

B. Section 472 of IPC

C. Section 473 of IPC

D. Section 474 of IPC

Ans. D

184. In which of the following case the Supreme Court pointed out this fact in relation to the above question?

A. State of Punjab v. Bhajan Singh (1975)

B. M.S. Sheriff v. State of Madras (1954)

C. Tika v. State of UP (1974)

D. None of them

Ans. B

185. Attempting to commit offences punishable with imprison­ment of life or imprisonment, and in such attempt doing any act towards the commission of the offence is dealt under-

A. Section 510 of IPC

B. Section 511 of IPC

C. Section 512 of IPC

D. Section 513 of IPC

Ans. B

186. Which of the following is the facet of audi alteram partem?

A. notice of the case to be met

B. good faith

C. opportunity to explain

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

187. In respect to cases instituted otherwise than on Police report, under which section charges are framed?

A. Section 240 Cr. PC.

B. Section 246 Cr. PC.

C. Section 256 Cr. P.C.

D. None of them

Ans. B

188. False statement rumour, etc., made in place of worship etc, with intent to create enmity hatred or ill-will is dealt under-

A. Section 128 of IPC

B. Section 201 of IPC

C. Section 505 of IPC

D. Section 302 of IPC

Ans. C

189. Under which section of the IPC a person irrespective of his nationality can be held guilty and is liable to punishment for any offence within India?

A. Section 2 of IPC

B. Section 5 of IPC

C. Section 7 of IPC

D. Both (A) and (C)

Ans. A

190. Mischief committed after preparation made for causing death, or hurt, etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 438 of IPC

B. Section 439 of IPC

C. Section 440 of IPC

D. Section 441 of IPC

Ans. C

191. Being entrusted with any closed receptacle containing or supposed to contain any property, and fraudulently opening the same is dealt under-

A. Section 462 of IPC

B. Section 463 of IPC

C. Section 464 of IPC

D. Section 465 of IPC

Ans. A

192. Under which of the following a corporation is indictable?

A. Vicarious liability

B. Personal liability for breach of statutory duty

C. Personal liability on the basis of attributing to the corporation the conduct and state of mind of an individual

D. All of them

Ans. D

193. X participated in the child marriage of Y in another country. Both X and Y were still Indian citizens at the time the marriage took place.

A. Y is liable for punishment under Section 3

B. Y is not liable as the marriage took place on a foreign soil

C. Both X and Y are liable for punishment under Section 3

D. None of them

Ans. C

194. Running vessel ashore with intent to commit theft, etc. dealt under-

A. Section 438 of IPC

B. Section 439 of IPC

C. Section 440 of IPC

D. Section 441 of IPC

Ans. B

195. Which of the following section makes all the offences under the Code without exception to be extra territorial?

A. Section 2

B. Section 4

C. Section 5

D. Section 7

Ans. B

196. Kidnapping or abducting a woman to compel her marriage or to cause her defilement etc. is dealt under-

A. Section 365 of IPC

B. Section 366 of IPC

C. Section 367 of IPC

D. Section 368 of IPC

Ans. B

197. Extradition is:

A. to surrender of one State to another of a person desired to be dealt with crimes of which he has been accused or convicted and which are justifiable in the Courts of the other countries

B. a political act done in pursuance of a treaty or an arrangement ad hoc

C. it can be sought on either in terms of treaty or on reciprocal arrangement

D. all of them

Ans. D

198. Knowingly selling goods marked with counterfeit property mark is dealt under-

A. Section 485 of IPC

B. Section 486 of IPC

C. Section 487 of IPC

D. Section 488 of IPC

Ans. B

199. Over which of the following admiralty jurisdiction extends?

A. Offences committed on Indian ships on the seas

B. Offences committed on foreign ships in Indian territorial waters

C. Piracy

D. All of them

Ans. D

200. Which of the following is true about special law?

A. relates to a particular subject

B. applies only to a particular part of the country

C. excise, opium and cattle trespass act

D. both (A) and (C)

Ans. D

For Question No. 201 to 300, click here.

For Question No. 301 to 400, click here.

For Question No. 401 to 536, click here.

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