150+ MCQs on Environmental Law | Question Bank

Environmental Law has become one of the most significant areas of law in today’s time due to rising concerns about pollution, climate change, biodiversity loss, and the sustainable use of natural resources. It not only covers statutory provisions but also deals with constitutional mandates, judicial activism, and international treaties.

This Question Bank of Environmental Law MCQs is designed to help law students, judicial aspirants, and professionals test and strengthen their understanding of the subject.

1. The word ‘Environ’ is of origin.
A. French
B. Latin
C. English
D. American

2. The word ‘Environ’ originally means-
A. The atmosphere
B. The nature
C. The surrounding
D. The study of nature

3. Environment includes-
A. Living things
B. Non-living things
C. Energies
D. All of the above

4. The natural resources which can be regenerated or reproduced or are freely available in nature is called as-
A. Renewable resources
B. Non-renewable resources
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

5. Which of the following is an example of non-renewable resources?
A. Sunlight
B. Wind
C. Ground Water
D. Coal

6. The physical environment of the earth can be broadly categorized into-
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

7. Which Section defines ‘Environment’ under the Environmental Protection Act, 1986?
A. Sec. 2(C)
B. Sec. 2(D)
C. Sec. 2(A)
D. Sec. 2(B)

8. “Environment is the sum total of conditions surrounding men in space and time”.
A. Britannica
B. Jeremy Bentham
C. Plato
D.C.C. Parker

9. United States Council on Environmental Quality defines ‘Ecology’ as-
A. Study of living organisms
B. Study of non-living things
C. Study of living & non-living things and their interaction with one another
D. None of the above

10. Which of the following may not come under the study of ecology?
A. Grassland
B. Forest
C. Desert
D. Aquarium

11. Who is called the “Father of Ecology”?
A. Ernst Haeckel
B. Darwin
C. Aristotle
D. Hippocrates

12. In which year did Ernst Haeckel coin the term ‘Ecology’?
A. 1866
B. 1859
C. 1872
D. 1885

13. In which year was the Environmental Protection Act passed in India?
A. 1981
B. 1986
C. 1991
D. 1995

14. Which of the following is a component of the biotic environment?
A. Animals
B. Plants
C. Microorganisms
D. All of the above

15. Which of the following is a component of the abiotic environment?
A. Air
B. Water
C. Soil
D. All of the above

16. Which among the following is the correct full form of EIA?
A. Environmental International Act
B. Environmental Impact Assessment
C. Ecological Impact Association
D. Environmental Internal Audit

17. Which of the following gases is known as a greenhouse gas?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Helium

18. Ozone depletion is mainly caused by which of the following?
A. CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons)
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Methane

19. The Kyoto Protocol is related to which of the following issues?
A. Desertification
B. Climate change
C. Deforestation
D. Population growth

20. The Montreal Protocol is related to which of the following?
A. Protection of biodiversity
B. Ozone layer protection
C. Control of nuclear weapons
D. World trade

21. Which of the following is the largest source of energy on Earth?
A. Sun
B. Coal
C. Oil
D. Natural gas

22. Which of the following is an example of a fossil fuel?
A. Petroleum
B. Coal
C. Natural gas
D. All of the above

23. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?
A. Wind
B. Solar
C. Coal
D. Hydropower

24. Who introduced the concept of ‘Ecological Pyramid’?
A. Charles Elton
B. Darwin
C. Linnaeus
D. Lamarck

25. The term ‘Biodiversity’ was coined by-
A. E.O. Wilson
B. Ernst Haeckel
C. Charles Darwin
D.C.C. Parker

26. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Methane
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrous oxide

27. Acid rain is caused due to the presence of which gases in the atmosphere?
A. Sulphur dioxide & Nitrogen oxides
B. Oxygen & Carbon dioxide
C. Hydrogen sulphide & Carbon monoxide
D. Ozone & Methane

28. The Chipko Movement was associated with-
A. Water conservation
B. Forest conservation
C. Soil conservation
D. Air pollution

29. Which state in India is associated with the Silent Valley Movement?
A. Kerala
B. Uttarakhand
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Rajasthan

30. Which gas is responsible for the maximum greenhouse effect?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Methane
C. Nitrous oxide
D. CFCs

31. Sec. ___ defines ‘water pollution’ under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
A. Sec. 2(A)
B. Sec. 2(e)
C. Sec. 2(i)
D. Sec. 2(o)

32. Which of the following is an essential of water pollution as per the definition of ‘water pollution’ under the Water Act?
A. Contamination of water
B. Discharge of any substance in water
C. Creating nuisance or harm due to contamination or alteration
D. Causes injurious to living and non-living things

33. Which of the following is not the industrial cause of water pollution?
A. Cooling of machines
B. Food processing
C. Petroleum or Oil Spills
D. Untreated Sewage

34. Which of the following is/are the major types of water pollutants?
A. Sewage
B. Excessive use of fertilizers & pesticides
C. Thermal heat discharge
D. All of the above

35. The most direct effect of water pollution is upon-
A. Plant life
B. Animal life
C. Aquatic life
D. Human life

36. ___ is a disease that causes severe watery diarrhoea and can lead to dehydration and even death if untreated.
A. Cholera
B. Dysentery
C. Jaundice
D. Malaria

37. Which of the following constitutes Land pollution?
A. Reduce the productivity of land
B. Demolish the surface of earth
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

38. Which of the following is the major reason behind land pollution?
A. Plastic
B. Chemicals
C. Acid Rain
D. Smoking

39. Food pollution means the presence of-
A. Chemical contaminants in food
B. Biological contaminants in food
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

40. Which of the following is an auditory effect of noise pollution?
A. Annoyance
B. Interference with speech
C. Deafness
D. Psychological changes

41. Contamination of food from sources such as yeast, parasites, viruses, bacteria, and mold falls under-
A. Chemical contamination
B. Biological contamination
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

42. Which of the following is an essential of noise pollution?
A. High intensity sound
B. Unpleasant auditory effect
C. Undesirable to some
D. All of the above

43. A boy is busy playing PubG throughout the day and uses headphones for the same. If he continues to do the same for the next few years he may suffer-
A. Partial or complete deafness
B. Lack of concentration
C. Annoyance
D. Whistling or buzzing in ears

44. Which of the following can be safety equipment for a worker against noise pollution?
A. Earbuds
B. Headphone
C. Monkey Cap
D. Helmet

45. Which of the following can be considered as the most polluted food that we see around us?
A. Apple
B. Banana
C. Grapes
D. Papaya

46. Under which section of Environment Protection Act, definition of ‘Environment’ is given?
A. Sec. 2(A)
B. Sec. 2(B)
C. Sec. 2(g)
D. Sec. 2(j)

47. A combination of biotic community with physical environment is called as-
A. Ecology
B. Biomes
C. Ecosystem
D. Biosphere

48. What amongst following is natural pollution?
A. Population Explosion
B. Industrialization
C. Automobiles
D. Desertification

49. The basal part of atmosphere which is about 20 kms above the Earth surface is-
A. Stratosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Ionosphere

50. Which among the following are air pollutants?
A. Nitrogen Oxide
B. Particulates
C. Hydrocarbons
D. All the above

51. Which component of air protects Earth’s surface from severe radiation damage?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon
C. Ozone
D. Hydrogen

52. The principal form/s of water in nature is/are-
A. Atmospheric moisture
B. Precipitation
C. Soil water
D. All the above

53. Heating or cooling of water which drastically alter the biota in water body is referred as-
A. Water Pollution
B. Thermal Pollution
C. Heat Pollution
D. Temperature Pollution

54. Land pollution means-
A. Making bad & harmful use of land
B. Addition of unwanted substance in indefinite proportion on land
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

55. Solid waste, agricultural operations, mining etc. are major sources of-
A. Air pollution
B. Water pollution
C. Soil pollution
D. Noise pollution

56. Which among the following can cause radiation pollution?
A. Uranium
B. Ozone
C. Sulphur
D. Methane

57. Noise is-
A. Unwanted sound
B. Undesired sound
C. Unpleasant sound
D. All the above

58. Through which medium sound cannot pass?
A. Air
B. Vacuum
C. Water
D. Solid

59. Noise pollution (Regulation & Control) Rules are framed in-
A. Year 1999
B. Year 2001
C. Year 2000
D. Year 2002

60. How much area around hospitals, educational institutes, courts etc. is “silence zone”?
A. 100-meter area
B. 200-meter area
C. 500-meter area
D. 1 km area

61. Air pollution can affect-
A. Human beings
B. Plants
C. Monuments
D. All the above

62. Which court have developed Public Trust Doctrine?
A. Indian Courts
B. American Courts
C. British Courts
D. German Courts

63. By which Constitutional Amendment Art. 48(A) is inserted in Indian Constitution?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 47th Amendment
C. 56th Amendment
D. 74th Amendment

64. Under which provision of Indian Constitution, the fundamental duty of environment protection is casted upon Indian Citizens?
A. Art. 51(A)(j)
B. Art. 51(A)(f)
C. Art. 51(A)(k)
D. Art. 51(A)(g)

65. Which offence under IPC have its bearing on environment?
A. Public Nuisance
B. Mischief
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

66. Union Carbide Corporation Vs Union of India is the case popularly known as-
A. Ganga Pollution case
B. Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster case
C. Taj Mahal case
D. Doon Valley case

67. Sustainable Development means-
A. Suspension of development for environmental imperatives
B. Separation of development & environment
C. Integration of development & environmental imperatives
D. Division of Development & environmental imperatives

68. The Stockholm Conference on Environment & Development 1972 was held under the auspices of-
A. ILO
B. WHO
C. UNO
D. IAEA

69. Water containing foreign substances which alters physical, chemical or biological properties of water is-
A. Clean water
B. Dirty water
C. Fresh water
D. Polluted water

70. The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act is legislated in the year-
A. 1972
B. 1974
C. 1984
D. 1986

71. Under which provision, the Central Government can establish a ‘Central Water Laboratory’ under Water Act?
A. Sec 51
B. Sec 52
C. Sec 16
D. Sec 17

72. As per Wild Life Protection Act, hunting of wild animal is permitted for-
A. Scientific Management
B. Entertainment
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

73. Who is the Chairperson of National Board for Wild Life?
A. President of India
B. Prime Minister of India
C. Minister in charge of Forest & Wild Life
D. Director of Wild Life Preservation

74. Who can declare an area as Sanctuary as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act?
A. Central Government
B. State Government
C. President of India
D. Forest and Wild Life Ministry

75. Which among the following is not permitted under Wild Life Protection Act?
A. Killing of wild animal in defence
B. Wounding a wild animal in good faith
C. Hunting for collection of specimens for recognized zoo
D. Capturing a wild animal for trading

76. Which among the following is not an artificial pollution?
A. Population explosion
B. Industrialisation
C. Urbanisation
D. Floods

77. Global Warming is due to-
A. Depletion of Ozone layer
B. Greenhouse gases
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

78. Environment Protection Act is legislated in-
A. 1974
B. 1972
C. 1986
D. 1984

79. Livestock means-
A. Wild animals
B. Captive Animals
C. Farm animals
D. All the above

80. An establishment whether stationary or mobile, where captive or wild animals are kept for exhibition to the public is known as-
A. Zoo
B. Circus
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

81. The Environment Protection Act was enacted for-
A. Regulation of discharge of environmental pollutants
B. Handling of hazardous substances
C. Speedy responses in the event of accidents threatening environment
D. All of the above

82. The Central Government shall have the power to take all such measures as it deems necessary or expedient for the purpose of-
A. Protecting and improving the quality of the environment
B. Preventing, controlling and abating environmental pollution
C. Either A or B
D. Both A and B

83. No person carrying on any industry, operation or process shall discharge or emit or permit to be discharged or emitted any environmental pollutant-
A. Less than the standard as may be prescribed
B. In excess of such standards as may be prescribed
C. Equal to such standards as may be prescribed
D. None of the above

84. No person shall handle or cause to be handled any hazardous substance except-
A. In accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed
B. After complying with such safeguards as may be prescribed
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

85. As per section 11 of the Environment Protection Act, the person taking the sample under sub-sec (1) shall collect the sample for analysis-
A. In the presence of the occupier
B. In the presence of the Agent of the occupier
C. In the presence of the person of the occupier
D. In the presence of the occupier or his agent or person

86. The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette establish-
A. One environmental laboratory
B. More than one environmental Laboratories
C. One or more environmental Laboratories
D. None of the above

87. Any document purporting to be a report signed by a Government analyst may-
A. Not be used as evidence of the facts stated therein in any proceedings under Environment Protection Act
B. Be used as evidence of the facts stated therein in any proceedings under Environment Protection Act
C. Be used as evidence of the facts stated therein in any proceedings under any Act
D. None of the above

88. Sewage effluent means-
A. Effluent from any sewage system
B. Sewage disposal works
C. Sullage from open drains
D. None of the above

89. Sewer means any conduit pipe or channel, open or closed-
A. Carrying sewage
B. Carrying trade effluent
C. Carrying sewage or trade effluent
D. Carrying nothing

90. Trade effluent does not include-
A. Domestic sewage
B. Any liquid, gaseous or solid substance which is discharged from any premises used for carrying on any industry, operation or process or treatment and disposal system
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

91. The maximum number of members which the Central Board may consist of (excluding chairman) is-
A. 20
B. 16
C. 15
D. 10

92. The chairman of a State Board may be-
A. A full-time chairman
B. A part-time chairman
C. A full-time or part-time chairman
D. None of the above

93. A member of a board other than a member secretary shall hold office for a term of-
A. Three years from the date of his nomination
B. Four years from the date of his nomination
C. Five years from the date of his nomination
D. Six years from the date of his nomination

94. A member of a board may be removed before the expiry of his term of office after giving him a reasonable opportunity of showing cause against the same-
A. By the Central Government
B. By the State Government
C. By the Central or the State Government as the case may be
D. By the High Court

95. A casual vacancy in a Board shall be filled by a fresh nomination and the person nominated to fill the vacancy shall hold office-
A. Only for the remainder of the term for which the member in whose place he was nominated
B. For a fresh period of 5 years
C. Either A or B
D. None of the above

96. No person shall be a member of a Board who-
A. Is or at any time has been adjudged insolvent
B. Is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court
C. Is or at any time has been convicted of an offence under this Act
D. Has any one or more of the disqualifications mentioned from A to C

97. The result of any analysis of a sample of any sewage or trade effluent taken under Section 21(1) of Water Act shall-
A. Not be admissible in evidence in any legal proceedings
B. Be admissible in evidence provided certain conditions are fulfilled
C. None of the above
D. Both A and B

98. Whoever damages any works or property belonging to the board shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to-
A. 3 years
B. 3 months
C. 6 years
D. 6 months

99. Whoever contravenes the provisions of section 24 of Water Act shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year and six months but which may extend to-
A. Six years and with fine
B. Five years and with fine
C. Three years and with fine
D. Four years and with fine

100. The Central Board or Joint Board under Water Act may be superseded by the-
A. State Government
B. Central Government
C. High Court
D. Supreme Court

101. A State Board may be superseded by the
A. State Government
B. Central Government
C. High Court of that state
D. Supreme Court

102. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981 was enacted for the
A. Preservation of the quality of air
B. To control air pollution
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

103. Air pollution means
A. Presence in the atmosphere of any air pollutant
B. Absence in the atmosphere of any air pollutant
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B

104. Approved appliances mean any equipment or gadget used for the burning of any combustible material or for generating or consuming any fume, gas or particulate matter and approved by
A. The State Board for the purpose of Air Act
B. The Central Board for the purpose of Air Act
C. Both the Governments
D. Either of the Governments

105. Automobile means any vehicle powered by
A. Internal combustion engine
B. By any method of generating power to drive such vehicle by burning fuel
C. Either A or B
D. Human power

106. Control equipment means any apparatus, device, equipment or system to control the
A. Quality of emission of any air pollutant
B. Manner of emission of any air pollutant
C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B

107. Emission means any solid or liquid or gaseous substance coming out of any
A. Chimney
B. Duct
C. Flue
D. Chimney, duct or flue

108. Industrial plant means any plant emitting any air pollutant in the atmosphere and used for any
A. Industrial or trade purposes
B. Industrial purposes
C. Trade purposes
D. None of the above

109. The main functions of the Central Board constituted under Air Act is
A. To improve the quality of air
B. To prevent, control, abate air pollution in the country
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

110. The Central Board under Air Act may
A. Lay down standards for the quality of air
B. Collect and disseminate information in respect of matters relating to air pollution
C. Plan and cause to be executed a nationwide program for the prevention, control or abatement of air pollution
D. All of the above

111. The functions of a State Board under Air Act shall be
A. To plan a comprehensive program for the prevention, control or abatement of air pollution and to secure the execution thereof
B. To advise the State Government on any matter concerning the prevention, control or abatement of air pollution
C. To collect and disseminate information relating to air pollution
D. All of the above

112. The State Government may
A. Alter any air pollution control area whether by way of extension or reduction
B. Declare a new air pollution control area in which may be merged one or more existing air pollution control areas or any part or parts thereof
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

113. No person shall, without the previous consent of the State Board
A. Establish any industrial plant in an air pollution control area
B. Operate any industrial plant in an air pollution control area
C. Establish or operate any industrial plant in an air pollution control area
D. All of the above

114. A person operating any industrial plant in an air pollution control area immediately before the commencement of Sec 9 of Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act 1987 may continue to do so for a certain period. This period is
A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 2 years
D. 1 year

115. The State Government, to carry out the functions entrusted to the State Air Laboratory under Air Act may
A. Establish one or more State Air Laboratories
B. Specify one or more Laboratories or Institutes as State Air Laboratories
C. Neither establish nor specify
D. Either establish or specify

116. Any document purporting to be a report signed by a Government analyst may
A. Not be used as evidence of the facts stated therein in any proceeding under Air Act
B. Be used as evidence of the facts stated therein in any proceeding under Air Act
C. Be used as evidence of the facts stated therein in any proceedings under any Act
D. None of the above

117. Whoever damages any works or property belonging to the Board under Air Act shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to
A. Three years
B. Three months
C. Six years
D. Six months

118. Cattle includes
A. Elephants, camels, buffaloes, horses, mares
B. Geldings, ponies, colts, fillies, mules, asses
C. Pig, rams, sheep, lambs, goats, kids
D. All the above

119. Forest produce includes
A. Timber, charcoal, wood, oil, resin, natural varnish
B. Trees and leaves, flowers and fruits
C. Plants not being trees (including grass, creepers, reeds & moss)
D. All the above

120. River includes a
A. Natural stream, canal, creek or other channels
B. Artificial stream, canal, creek or other channels
C. Natural or artificial stream, canal, creek or other channels
D. Neither natural nor artificial

121. Timber includes trees when they
A. Have fallen
B. Have been felled
C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B

122. When a forest offence has been committed in respect of any forest produce, such produce together with all tools, boats, carts or cattle used in committing any such offence may be seized by
A. Any forest officer
B. Any police officer
C. Forest officer or police officer
D. Neither forest officer nor police officer

123. A State Government or other authority can make an order directing that any forest land or any portion thereof may be used for any non-forest purpose
A. Without prior approval of Central Government
B. With prior approval of Central Government
C. With prior approval of State Assembly
D. With prior approval of State Legislative Council

124. Animal article
A. Does not include ivory imported into India
B. Includes an article made from ivory imported into India
C. Includes ivory imported into India
D. Both B and C are correct

125. Captive animal means any animal specified in schedule I, II, III or IV which is
A. Captured only in captivity
B. Bred only in captivity
C. Kept only in captivity
D. Captured or kept or bred in captivity

126. Dealer means any person who deals with any captive animal, animal article, trophy, uncured trophy, meat or specified plant by carrying on the business of
A. Buying and selling of such animals or articles
B. Buying only of such animals or articles
C. Selling only of animals or articles
D. None of the above

127. Habitat is the natural home of any wild animal which includes
A. Land
B. Water
C. Vegetation
D. Land or water or vegetation

128. Meat includes
A. Blood, bones
B. Sinew, eggs
C. Fat and flesh
D. All of the above

129. Taxidermy means
A. Curing, preparation or preservation of trophies
B. Curing of trophies
C. Preparation of trophies
D. Preservation of trophies

130. Trophy means the whole or any part of any captive animal or wild animal other than vermin, which has been
A. Preserved by artificial or natural means
B. Kept or preserved by artificial or natural means
C. Kept or preserved by artificial means
D. Kept or preserved by natural means

131. Uncured Trophy includes
A. A freshly killed wild animal
B. A freshly killed ambergris
C. A freshly killed musk
D. A freshly killed wild animal, ambergris, musk

132. Vehicle under Wildlife Protection Act
A. Includes a buffalo, bull, bullock, camel, donkey, elephant, horse and mule
B. Does not include buffalo, bull, bullock, camel, donkey, elephant, horse and mule
C. Both A and B are incorrect
D. Both A and B are correct

133. Weapon includes ammunition, bows and arrows, explosives, firearms, hooks, knives, nets, poison, snares and traps and any instrument or apparatus capable of
A. Anaesthetizing an animal
B. Destroying or killing an animal
C. Injuring or killing an animal
D. Anaesthetizing, decoying, destroying, injuring or killing an animal

134. Wildlife includes
A. Any animal, bees, butterflies, crustacea, fish and moths
B. Aquatic or land vegetation which forms part of any habitat
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

135. Function of State Board constituted under the Water Act are specified under
A. Section 17
B. Section 18
C. Section 20
D. Section 21

136. Who is empowered to control sanctuaries under the Wildlife Protection Act
A. Forest officer
B. The State Government
C. The Chief Wildlife Warden
D. The Collector of the District

137. Any wild animal killed or wounded in defence of any person would be
A. The property of the person killing or wounding that animal
B. The property of the Chief Wildlife Warden
C. The property of the Central Government
D. The property of the State Government

138. Wild animal includes
A. Cow
B. Buffalo
C. Elephant
D. Dog

139. The Wildlife Warden in each district is appointed by
A. The State Government
B. The Chief Wildlife Warden
C. Wildlife Warden
D. The Wildlife Advisory Board

140. Whoever contravenes the provision of Sec 25 or Sec 26 of Water Act shall be punishable with imprisonment for the term which shall not be less than
A. One year and six months
B. Six months
C. Two years
D. Three years

141. The power to declare certain areas as Sanctuary under Sec 18 of Wildlife Protection Act has been conferred on
A. The Collector
B. The Central Government
C. The State Government
D. The Tahsildar

142. National parks are declared by
A. The State Government
B. The Collector of the District
C. The Chief Wildlife Warden
D. None of the above

143. The Sanctuaries are controlled by
A. The Collector
B. The Chief Wildlife Warden
C. The District Superintendent of Police
D. Revenue Secretary

144. The Supreme Court held that an enterprise engaged in hazardous or inherently dangerous activity is strictly and absolutely liable for the harm resulting from the operation of such activity in the following case
A. MV Sharma Vs Bharat Electricity Ltd
B. MC Mehta Vs Union of India
C. V Lakshmipati Vs State of Karnataka
D. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs State of Uttar Pradesh

145. The first case in India involving issues relating to environment and ecological balance is
A. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Vs State of UP
B. Ambica Quarry Works Vs State of Gujarat
C. Ratlam Municipality case
D. MC Mehta Vs Union of India

146. One of the following Sections of Wildlife Protection Act deals with immunization of livestock
A. Section 32
B. Section 33
C. Section 31
D. Section 33-A

147. The Wildlife Advisory Board shall meet
A. At least thrice a year
B. At least twice a year
C. At least once a year
D. At least once a quarter

148. The Central Board constituted under the Air Act is bound by the direction given by
A. The State Government
B. The Central Government
C. The President of India
D. Any person authorised by Central Government

149. Under Water Act, State Water Laboratory may be established under Sec 52 of the Act
A. By the State Board
B. The State Government
C. Central Board
D. The Central Government

150. One of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives a clear mandate to the State to protect and improve environment and to safeguard the forest and wildlife in the country
A. Article 20
B. Article 51(A)(g)
C. Article 54
D. Article 59

151. What is the primary goal of environmental management?
A) Maximizing profit
B) Minimizing resource use
C) Protecting and preserving the environment
D) Promoting urbanization

152. Which of the following is an example of a renewable energy source?
A) Natural gas
B) Coal
C) Solar power
D) Nuclear power

153. What is the purpose of an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?
A) To reduce environmental regulations
B) To assess the potential environmental effects of a project
C) To promote unsustainable development
D) To bypass environmental laws

154. Which international agreement aims to address climate change and reduce greenhouse gas emissions?
A) Kyoto Protocol
B) Montreal Protocol
C) Paris Agreement
D) Rio Declaration

155. What is the term for the process by which fertile land becomes desert due to factors like deforestation and soil degradation?
A) Desertification
B) Afforestation
C) Reforestation
D) Erosion

156. Which of the following is a key principle of sustainable development?
A) Maximizing short-term profits
B) Minimizing resource conservation
C) Balancing economic, environmental, and social factors
D) Ignoring the needs of future generations

157. What does the term “carbon footprint” refer to?
A) The weight of carbon-based materials
B) The amount of carbon dioxide emissions caused by an individual or organization
C) A mark left in the sand
D) A measure of air pollution

158. What is the primary cause of ozone depletion in the Earth’s stratosphere?
A) Carbon dioxide emissions
B) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
C) Volcanic eruptions
D) Methane emissions

159. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
A) Wind energy
B) Oil
C) Geothermal energy
D) Organic farming

160. Which of the following pollutants is a major contributor to acid rain?
A) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
B) Sulfur dioxide (SO2)
C) Methane (CH4)
D) Oxygen (O2)

161. What is the purpose of the 3Rs in waste management?
A) Reuse, Recycle, Remove
B) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
C) Recycle, Regenerate, Reduce
D) Remove, Repurpose, Refuse

162. What is the term for the loss of a species from a particular habitat or from the entire planet?
A) Speciation
B) Extinction
C) Hybridization
D) Migration

163. What is the role of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) in environmental conservation?
A) To promote industrialization
B) To protect and conserve wildlife and their habitats
C) To encourage deforestation
D) To exploit natural resources

164. Which of the following is an example of a point source pollution?
A) Agricultural runoff
B) Factory smokestack emissions
C) Ocean currents
D) Wind erosion

165. What is the main greenhouse gas responsible for global warming?
A) Oxygen (O2)
B) Methane (CH4)
C) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
D) Nitrogen (N2)

166. What is the term for the practice of planting trees to restore or create a forest?
A) Deforestation
B) Afforestation
C) Desertification
D) Soil erosion

167. What is the primary function of the United Nations Environmental Programme (UNEP)?
A) To promote deforestation
B) To reduce international cooperation on environmental issues
C) To coordinate global environmental efforts and address environmental problems
D) To encourage unsustainable development

168. Which of the following is a method of wastewater treatment?
A) Landfill disposal
B) Incineration
C) Composting
D) Biological treatment

169. What is the concept of “sustainable consumption”?
A) Maximizing resource use
B) Reducing waste generation
C) Ignoring environmental concerns
D) Promoting overconsumption

170. Which of the following is a key component of an Environmental Management System (EMS)?
A) Energy consumption
B) Stakeholder engagement
C) Deforestation
D) Ozone depletion

171. What is the term for the process of removing salt from seawater to make it suitable for drinking and irrigation?
A) Desalination
B) Deforestation
C) Eutrophication
D) Desertification

172. Which international agreement aims to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the use of ozone-depleting substances?
A) Kyoto Protocol
B) Montreal Protocol
C) Paris Agreement
D) Rio Declaration

173. What is the primary goal of the Clean Water Act in the United States?
A) To promote water pollution
B) To weaken environmental regulations
C) To regulate the discharge of pollutants into surface waters
D) To encourage soil erosion

174. What is the term for the process of using living organisms to clean up or reduce environmental pollution?
A) Bioremediation
B) Overconsumption
C) Soil erosion
D) Greenwashing

175. Which of the following is an example of non-point source pollution?
A) Industrial discharges
B) Sewage treatment plant effluent
C) Pesticide runoff from agricultural fields
D) Air pollution from factories

176. What is the term for the sustainable use and management of forests for environmental, economic, and social benefits?
A) Afforestation
B) Deforestation
C) Reforestation
D) Sustainable forestry

177. Which of the following is a significant cause of ocean pollution?
A) Conservation efforts
B) Marine reserves
C) Plastic waste
D) Coral reefs

178. What is the primary focus of the Ramsar Convention?
A) Protecting endangered species
B) Wetland conservation and sustainable use
C) Promoting desertification
D) Encouraging urbanization

179. What is the term for the introduction of harmful substances or pollutants into the air, water, or soil at levels that cause harm to living organisms?
A) Sustainable development
B) Pollution
C) Conservation
D) Urbanization

180. What is the primary goal of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)?
A) To increase habitat destruction
B) To protect and conserve biodiversity
C) To promote overfishing
D) To encourage species extinction

181. Which of the following is a form of renewable energy derived from the Earth’s internal heat?
A) Solar power
B) Wind energy
C) Geothermal energy
D) Fossil fuels

182. What is the term for the process of restoring or enhancing ecosystems to improve their ecological function and biodiversity?
A) Greenwashing
B) Conservation
C) Restoration ecology
D) Desertification

183. What is the primary purpose of an Environmental Management Plan (EMP)?
A) To ignore environmental issues
B) To promote unsustainable development
C) To outline strategies for managing and mitigating environmental impacts
D) To encourage overconsumption

184. What is the term for the decline in the quality of air, water, and soil due to human activities?
A) Environmental protection
B) Environmental degradation
C) Sustainable development
D) Urbanization

185. What is biodiversity?
A) The presence of a single species in an ecosystem
B) The variety of life on Earth, including species, genes, and ecosystems
C) The process of urbanization
D) The absence of life in a particular area

186. Which of the following is a common greenhouse gas emitted by agriculture and livestock?
A) Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
C) Methane (CH4)
D) Sulfur dioxide (SO2)

187. What is the primary goal of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)?
A) To promote the trade of endangered species
B) To conserve and regulate international trade in endangered species and their products
C) To encourage habitat destruction
D) To weaken wildlife protection laws

188. Which of the following is an example of a non-biodegradable waste material?
A) Organic matter
B) Plastics
C) Paper
D) Glass

189. What is the term for the process of building and managing urban areas in an environmentally sustainable way?
A) Suburbanization
B) Overconsumption
C) Urbanization
D) Sustainable urban planning

190. What is the term for the variety of ecosystems, species, and genes in a particular area?
A) Pollution
B) Habitat destruction
C) Biodiversity
D) Conservation

191. What is the primary focus of the Basel Convention?
A) To promote hazardous waste disposal
B) To regulate the trade in hazardous waste
C) To encourage deforestation
D) To ignore the management of hazardous chemicals

192. What is the term for the process of using natural processes to treat wastewater or sewage?
A) Incineration
B) Landfill disposal
C) Composting
D) Natural wastewater treatment

193. Which international agreement is focused on the protection and sustainable management of marine resources in international waters?
A) The Paris Agreement
B) The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
C) The Rio Declaration
D) The Kyoto Protocol

194. What is the term for the process of reducing or eliminating the use of harmful pesticides in agriculture?
A) Sustainable agriculture
B) Urbanization
C) Deforestation
D) Overfishing

195. Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?
A) Natural gas
B) Coal
C) Wind energy
D) Plastic

196. What is the term for the practice of using natural resources in a way that meets current needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs?
A) Overconsumption
B) Sustainability
C) Pollution
D) Greenwashing

197. What is the primary goal of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS)?
A) To encourage overhunting of migratory species
B) To promote habitat destruction
C) To conserve migratory species and their habitats
D) To ignore the protection of migratory species

198. What is the term for the process of enriching soil with organic matter to improve its fertility and structure?
A) Deforestation
B) Soil erosion
C) Composting
D) Erosion

199. What is the primary focus of the Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes?
A) To promote the illegal export of hazardous waste
B) To regulate the transboundary movement of hazardous waste
C) To encourage unsustainable development
D) To weaken environmental regulations

200. What is the term for the process of restoring damaged ecosystems to their natural state?
A) Sustainable development
B) Conservation
C) Ecological restoration
D) Desertification

201 Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Stockholm Conference, 1972?

1. It was the first step towards which put forward environmental concerns on the global agenda.
2. The Stockholm Declaration contained principles and an Action Plan containing recommendations for environmental policy.
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 & 2

202 Which environmental law establishes two sets of penal offences whereby the government can sue any person who uses dynamite or other explosive substance in any way (whether coastal or inlanD) with intent to catch or destroy any fish or poisonous fish in order to kill?
[A] Easement Act
[B] Indian Fisheries Act
[C] Factories Act
[D] Coastal Regulation Zone Notification

203 Consider the following statement (s) related to the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification and identify which is True.
I. It puts regulations on various activities, including construction, are regulated.
II. It gives protection to the backwaters & estuaries.
[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I & II
[D] Neither I nor II

204 Consider the following statement (s) related to the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act and identify which one is True.
I. It provides for the protection of birds and animals and for all matters that are connected to it whether it be their habitat or the waterhole or the forests that sustain them.
II. It aims to deal with waste arising from ships along the coastal areas within a specified radius.
[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I & II
[D] Neither I nor II

205 The main global contributing factors to greenhouse-gas emissions are:
[A] Electricity production and transportation
[B] Industrial processes
[C] Agricultural processes
[D] Agriculture and transportation

206 Which of the following is the first major Environmental Protection Act to be promulgated in India?
[A] Environment Act
[B] Air Act
[C] Water Act
[D] None of the Above

207 ________ is a problem not associated with population growth.
[A] Food & Energy Storage
[B] Environment pollution
[C] Increased resource consumption
[D] None of the Above

208 The term “environment pollutant” has been defined in the Act includes:
[A] Solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in concentration that is injurious to the environment
[B] Hazardous substances that are responsible for pollution
[C] Takes into account air, water & noise pollution.
[D] All of the Above

209 What is an environment audit?
[A] An idea to check and take necessary action against erring industries and erring officers.
[B] A check on the accounts of the companies involved in environment pollution.
[C] A check on environmental pollutants and the measure on extent of damage caused.
[D] All of the above.

210 The Environment Protection Act is under which of the categories of legislation?
[A] Welfare legislation
[B] Penal legislation
[C] Remedial legislation
[D] None of the Above

211 In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the directions given by the Environment Pollution (Prevention and control) Authority Constituted under Section 3, EP Act are…
[A] Binding only to the extent that it conforms with Act.
[B] Final and binding on all persons and organizations concerned and ate bound to follow the same.
[C] Non-binding where reasons are given for justification of the Act.
[D] Non-appealable and binding in nature.

212 What is the objective of the Environment Protection Act 1986?
[A] To implement decisions taken at the UN Conferences on Human Environment in Stockholm, 1972
[B] To take appropriate steps in protection and improvement of human environment.
[C] To prevent hazards to human being, living creatures, plans and property.
[D] All of the above

213 Section 7 of the EP Act directs that persons carrying on any industry shall not discharge any environmental pollutants in excess of standards prescribed by
[A] SPCB
[B] CPCB
[C] State Government
[D] Central Government

214 Section 17 of the EP Act is significant provision that provides for an offence committed by any department of government wherein:
[A] Government is excused from liability as the government itself frames the Act.
[B] Head of department shall be deemed guilty and is liable.
[C] The department officials responsible for contravention will be held liable.
[D] No liability since the Act falls within the sovereign function of the State.

215 Which section defines “Environment” under the Act?
[A] Section 2(A)
[B] Section 2 (B)
[C] Section 2(C)
[D] Section 2(D)

216 Article 21, 47, 48-A and 51-A(g) that provide that the State must protect and improve the environment and safeguard forest and wildlife by incorporating which of the following principles of Environmental law?
[A] Polluters pays principle
[B] Precautionary principle
[C] Both A and B
[D] None of the Above

217 When was the Central Pollution Control Board established?
[A] 1972
[B] 1978
[C] 1974
[D] 1982

218 Who appoints the chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board?
[A] Central Government
[B] State Government
[C] Governor of the State
[D] President of India

219 Which one of the following is the apex organization in the country in the field of pollution control?
[A] Water Pollution Control Board
[B] State Pollution Control Board
[C] Central Pollution Control Board
[D] Air pollution Control Board

220 How many officials can be nominated to the Central Pollution Control Board by the Central Government?
[A] Twenty-Five
[B] Fifteen
[C] Ten
[D] Five

221 In State Pollution Control Boards, how many constitutions of committees can be constituted?
[A] One
[B] Ten
[C] None
[D] As many committees as necessary

222 The Central Pollution Control Board plays an important role in abatement and control of pollution in the country.
[A] Yes
[B] No
[C] Depends on the State
[D] None of the Above

223 Where is the head office of the Central Pollution Control Board?
[A] Mumbai
[B] Mysore
[C] New Delhi
[D] Raipur

224 Which is the first country to pass the amendment in the parliament to safeguard the environment?
[A] Brazil
[B] Denmark
[C] China
[D] India

225 Which convention was adopted for the protection of the ozone layer?
[A] Vienna Convention
[B] Basel Convention
[C] Montreal Protocol
[D] Stockholm Convention

226 The concept of sustainable development contains
[A] The precautionary principle
[B] Polluter pays principle
[C] Doctrine of public trust
[D] All of the above

227 Powers to give directions under section 5 of the Environmental Protection Act, 1986, include
[A] Regulation of industry
[B] Closure of industry
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None of the above

228 One of the main objectives of the Central Pollution Control Board is to coordinate the activities of State Pollution Control Boards and resolve the disputes among them.
[A] True
[B] False
[C] Partly TRUE
[D] Partly FALSE

229 Which case relates to the issue of sample taking procedure under Water Act?
[A] Delhi bottling case
[B] Kedia leather case
[C] Ratlam case
[D] None of the above

230 Which of the following helped in the saving of trees?
[A] Pouring of water
[B] Developing of chemical manuals
[C] Use of modern agriculture
[D] Development of iron and steel

231 Section 5A provides that any person aggrieved by the direction under section 5 of EPA, 1986, may appeal to
[A] High Court
[B] Supreme Court only
[C] National Green Tribunal
[D] Either 1 or 3

232 When did India launch the Ganga Action plan (GAP)?
[A] 1983
[B] 1984
[C] 1985
[D] 1986

233 The principle of intergenerational equity envisages:
[A] Conservation of options
[B] Conservation of quality
[C] Conservation of access
[D] All of the above

234 Which of the following cases is known as “High Water-mark case in forest protection”?
[A] Salebhai Mulla v. State of Gujarat
[B] T N Godavarman v. UOI
[C] Narmada Bachao Andolan v. UOI
[D] Samantha v. State of Andhra Pradesh

235 The provisions of environmental protection in the constitution were made under:
[A] Article 51A (C)
[B] Article 21B & 48A
[C] Article 27B (h)
[D] Article 48A & 51A (g)

236 Which one of the following movements was carried out for the conservation of forests and the environment?
[A] Forest movement
[B] Tehri Andolan
[C] Chipko Andolan
[D] Ganga Action Plan

237 Which of the following provisions of Indian Penal Code may be resorted to abate the pollution?
[A] Section 268
[B] Section 258
[C] Section 298
[D] Section 195

238 Who is famously known as the ‘Green Judge’?
[A] Justice V R Krishna Iyer
[B] Justice P N Bhagwati
[C] Justice Kuldip Singh
[D] Justice B N Kirpal

239 Preamble of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 does not mention:
[A] The Stockholm Conference
[B] Rio Conference
[C] Johannesburg Conference
[D] Article 21 of the Indian Constitution

240 Who adopted the technique of public interest litigation for the cause of environmental protection in many cases
[A] Indian judiciary
[B] Indian Army
[C] Indian Parliament
[D] Indian Civil Services

241 Who is the ex-officio chairperson of the National Board for Wild Life?
[A] Minister of Forest and Wildlife
[B] Prime Minister
[C] Chief Wildlife Warden
[D] Any of the above

242 When was the National Environmental Policy Act signed into law?
[A] 1974
[B] 1969
[C] 1970
[D] 2000

243 Which provision of the Wildlife Act deals with the declaration of a National Park?
[A] Section 35 A
[B] Section 35
[C] Section 35 B
[D] Section 36

244 The number of babies produced per thousand is known as____
[A] Immigration rate
[B] Mortality Rate
[C] Natality Rate
[D] Emigration Rate

245 Which country’s environmental law is the National Environmental Policy Act associated with?
[A] India
[B] United States
[C] United Kingdom
[D] France

246 Which of the following was not amended by the National Green Tribunal Act?
[A] The Forest Act
[B] The Wildlife Act
[C] The Biological Diversity Act
[D] The Water Act

247 Consider the following statement (s) related to the Biological Diversity Act.
I. This has been laid down for the regulation of production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances.
II. It is an act to provide for the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources and knowledge associated with it.
[A] Only I is True
[B] Only II is True
[C] Both I & II are True
[D] Neither I nor II is True

248 Which of the following Acts of environment and ecology is associated with ‘law applies to every municipal authority responsible for the collection, segregation, storage, transportation, processing, and disposal of municipal solid wastes’?
[A] Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules
[B] Environment (Siting for Industrial Projects) Rules
[C] Ozone Depleting Substances (Regulation and Control) Rules
[D] Batteries (Management and Handling) Rules

249 Consider the following statement (s) related to the Public Liability Insurance Act and Rules and identify which is correct.
I. It was drawn up to provide public liability insurance for the purpose of providing immediate relief to the persons affected by the accident while handling any hazardous substance.
II. This law puts regulations on various activities, including construction, are regulated. It gives some protection to the backwaters and estuaries.
[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I & II
[D] Neither I nor II

250 The NGT Tribunal has banned the use of non-biodegradable plastic bags less than ____ microns in the entire capital city of Delhi.
[A] 50
[B] 60
[C] 70
[D] 80

251) Which of the following statements is/are correct about National Green Tribunal (NGT)?

Establishment of NGT made National Environment Appellate Authority defunct.

Mumbai is one of the places of sitting of the Tribunal.
[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I & II
[D] Neither I nor II

252) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of UP is related to:
[A] Polluter Pays principle
[B] Precautionary principle
[C] Public Trust doctrine
[D] None of the above

253) The Environment Protection Act, 1986 has been made under which provision of the constitution?
[A] Article 253
[B] Article 252
[C] Article 249
[D] Article 246

254) Which of the following Environment-related Acts is/are correctly mentioned?

Environment Protection Act, 1986

Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
[A] Only (1) and (2)
[B] Only (3) and (4)
[C] Only (1), (2) and (3)
[D] Only (1), (2) and (4)

255) Which committee was setup to evaluate the cleanliness of various fuels on April 27, 2001?
[A] Bhure Lal committee
[B] Santhanam committee
[C] Malimath committee
[D] Madanlal committee

256) Which of the following is True about lakes as well as other water bodies:
[A] Young lake supports more life compared to Old Lake
[B] Young lake supports less life compared to Old Lake
[C] Support to life is similar in Young as well as Old Lake
[D] None of the above

257) NGT has banned open defecation and dumping of wastes in the floodplains of which river?
[A] Yamuna
[B] Ganga
[C] Godavari
[D] Mahanadi

258) The Environment (Protection) Act of India was enacted in which of the following year?
[A] 1974
[B] 1980
[C] 1986
[D] 2002

259) Which of the following animals are found in the wild animals list under the Wildlife Protection Act in India?
[A] Chimpanzee
[B] Gorilla
[C] Cheetah
[D] Snow Leopard

260) Which of the following legislations does not come within the jurisdiction of NGT?
[A] Environment Protection Act
[B] Wildlife Protection Act
[C] AIR Act
[D] Public Liability Insurance Act

261) NGT has banned kite strings made of which material?
[A] Nylon
[B] Plastic
[C] Synthetic
[D] All of the above

262) Consider the following statements about CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species):

CITES is an intergovernmental organisation, restricting international trade of endangered fauna and flora.

CITES drafted a resolution adopted at the general conference of UNESCO.

CITES is legally binding on the states ratifying the agreement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1,2 & 3

263) Consider the following fauna of India:

Tiger

Lions

Rhino

Elephants

Currently, the Government of India has sanctioned special protection forces for which of the above?
[A] Only 1 & 3
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1, 3 & 4
[D] 1,2,3, & 4

264) Which of the following is/are correct statements regarding the “Protected Forests” in India?
I. No public entry is allowed for collection of timber or grazing of cattle in protected forests.
II. Protected forests are under full control of the government
[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I & II
[D] Neither I nor II

265) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides punishment for the illegal hunting and trade of wildlife. A tiger which has turned into a man eater can be hunted only if approval comes from ___?
[A] Authorities of the concerned national park/sanctuary
[B] Chief Minister of the state
[C] Environment Ministry, Government of India
[D] Chief wildlife warden of the concerned state

266) The National Green Tribunal (NGT) on 28 September 2015 sought a response from the Union Government on a plea that challenged the construction which the 300 MW multi-purpose project being built by Uttarakhand Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited (UJVNL).
[A] Lakhwar
[B] Bhakra Nangal
[C] Hirakud
[D] None of the above

267) The famous Kigali Amendment is related to:
[A] Phase out the use of hydro fluorocarbons (HFCs)
[B] New global treaty to reduce green house gases emission
[C] International agreement for transboundary movements of genetically modified organisms (GMOs)
[D] International disaster risk reduction plan

268) Consider the following statements about the Paris Agreement:
I. The objective of the agreement is to keep the global average temperature increase below 2 degrees.
II. India has signed as well as ratified the Paris Agreement.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I & II
[D] Neither I nor II

269) National Initiative on Climate Resilient Agriculture (NICRA) is an initiative to enhance the resilience of Indian agriculture covering crops, livestock and fisheries.
[A] True
[B] False
[C] Partly True
[D] Partly False

270) I. Green bond provides issuers access to a specific set of global investors who invest only in green ventures
II. Both private and public sector organizations can raise capital with the help of Green bonds.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I & II
[D] Neither I nor II

271) What is the full form of NGCP?
[A] National Green Corridor Program
[B] National Green Corridor Policy
[C] Natural Green Corridor Program
[D] Natural Green Corridor Policy

272) How has the CITES treaty helped protect endangered flora and fauna?
[A] Listing all species that can be hunted, traded, and used commercially
[B] Listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled
[C] Funding projects for breeding endangered plants and animals
[D] Preventing the hunting of whales and dolphins

273) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the term ecology?
I. Ecology is the scientific study of interaction between the organisms and their environment.
II. Environment refers to everything that surrounds an organism.
[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I & II
[D] Neither I nor II

274) Which of the following coined the term ‘ecology’?
[A] Tansley
[B] Ernst Haeckel
[C] Grinnell
[D] Darwin

275) Which of the following is not the function of wetlands?
[A] Water purification
[B] Control rate of runoff in urban areas
[C] Source of livelihood to local people
[D] Water conservation in rural areas

276) Which of the following statements are correct regarding estuaries?
I. Estuaries are considered the most productive region as it receives the high amount of nutrients from both fresh and marine water.
II. They are the most heavily populated areas throughout the world, with about 60% of the world’s population living along estuaries and the coast.
[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I & II
[D] Neither I nor II

277) Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Estuaries are usually biologically low productive zones.
II. They act as a filter for some dissolved constituents in river water; these precipitate in the zone where river water meets seawater.
[A] Only I
[B] Only II
[C] Both I & II
[D] Neither I nor II

278) The development activities along the seacoast and tidal-influenced water bodies are regulated by which of the following?
[A] The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)
[B] Exclusive Economic Zone
[C] Island Protection Zone (IPZ)
[D] Both A & C

279) Which of the following is not a status allocated by IUCN to flora & fauna?
[A] Endangered
[B] Critically Endangered
[C] Vulnerable
[D] Critically Vulnerable

280) What is the status of the Tana River red colobus in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species?
[A] Endangered
[B] Critically Endangered
[C] Threatened
[D] Near Threatened

281) Which of the following statements are correct about the Johannesburg Summit?

1. The Johannesburg Plan of Implementation was agreed upon at the World Summit on Sustainable Development or the Earth Summit 2005.
   
2. It affirmed UN’s commitment to ‘full implementation’ of Agenda 21, alongside the achievement of the Millennium Development Goals and other international agreements.
   [A] Only 1
   [B] Only 2
   [C] Both 1 & 2
   [D] Neither 1 & 2
   

282) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals?

1. Appendix I of the convention lists migratory species that are endangered or threatened with extinction.
   
2. Appendix II of the convention lists migratory species which have an unfavourable conservation status and which require international agreements for their conservation and management.
   [A] Only 1
   [B] Only 2
   [C] Both 1 & 2
   [D] Neither 1 & 2
   

283) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was passed in which of the following years?
[A] 1973
[B] 1974
[C] 1975
[D] 1976

284) The Indian Forest Act, 1927 establishes how many categories of forests?
[A] 2
[B] 3
[C] 4
[D] 5

285) What is the maximum time limit given to the National Green Tribunal to dispose of the cases?
[A] 3 Months
[B] 6 Months
[C] 9 Months
[D] 1 Year

286) Central Zoo Authority was established in which of the following years?
[A] 1991
[B] 1992
[C] 1993
[D] 1994

287) The concept of sustainable development was described by which of the following?
[A] Club of Rome
[B] Agenda 21
[C] Brundtland Commission Report
[D] None of the above

288) Which of the following law allows private rights to use a resource that is, groundwater, by viewing it as an attachment to the land?
[A] Easement Act
[B] Indian Fisheries Act
[C] Factories Act
[D] All of the Above

289) Which of the following is the United Nations (UN) decade of education for sustainable development?
[A] 2005-2014
[B] 2004-2013
[C] 1998-2007
[D] 1993-2002

290) Which of the following gas was leaked in the Bhopal Gas tragedy?
[A] Methyl isocyanate
[B] Methane
[C] Propane
[D] Methyl alcohol

291) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Wildlife corridor or Green corridor?

1. It is an area of habitat which connects wildlife populations separated by human activities.
   
2. Wildlife corridors may be both natural or created.
   
3. These corridors help animals that move between isolated patches on a daily basis and also those that migrate between habitats seasonally.
   [A] Only 1 & 2
   [B] Only 2 & 3
   [C] Only 1 & 3
   [D] 1, 2 & 3
   

292) Which provision of the Wildlife Act deals with the declaration of sanctuaries?
[A] Section 18
[B] Section 18A
[C] Section 18B
[D] Section 18C

293) The Forest Act penalises the offences by the Authorities and Government Department under which provision of the Act:
[A] Section 5A
[B] Section 3B
[C] Section 8A
[D] Section 5B

294) Who is responsible for safe disposal of the generated hazardous waste under the Hazardous Waste Management Rules?
[A] Generator
[B] Receiver
[C] Waste Management Facility
[D] TSDF

295) The activities of hazardous waste management facility are ________
[A] OPA
[B] HAS
[C] TSD
[D] SOS

296) What is the goal of Hazardous Waste Management Unit?
[A] Protect health and environment by risks of HW
[B] Chemical analysis
[C] Import
[D] Export

297) With which activity will you associate the term bycatch?
[A] Poaching
[B] Hunting
[C] Fishing
[D] Deforestation

298) What do you mean by the term bycatch?
[A] Overfishing of marine species
[B] Fishing of prohibited species
[C] Poaching of aquatic animals
[D] The unintended catch of marine species

299) In which case did the Supreme Court lay down the Public Trust Doctrine?
[A] M.C. Mehta v. UoI (Taj Trapezium Case)
[B] M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
[C] Rural Entitlement Litigation Kendra v. State of U.P.
[D] Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Shri Vardhichand

300) The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year
[A] 1974
[B] 1980
[C] 1986
[D] 1990