150+ MCQs on Public International Law | Question Bank

Public International Law is a crucial area of legal study dealing with relations between sovereign states, international organisations, and individuals under international law. For law students, judiciary aspirants, and UPSC candidates, mastering this subject requires not only conceptual clarity but also rigorous practice. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) serve as one of the best tools to test knowledge, improve accuracy, and prepare for examinations.

This question bank compiles important MCQs on Public International Law, designed to cover fundamental principles, landmark cases, treaties, and institutions.

1. International law is also known as Public International because it is law which deals with
a. Member of public
b. Law among nations
c. Group and not with individuals
d. Law among the states and individuals

2. The International law was earlier known as
a. Transactional law
b. Inter-state law
c. Law of nations
d. Transitional law

3. Who is said to be “The Father of Modern International Law”?
a. Gentilis
b. Grotius
c. Lauterpacht
d. Thomas rutherforth

4. The following jurist has said that International Law is mere positive morality:
a. Brierly
b. Kelsen
c. Hall
d. Austin

5. Who amongst the following called international law as vanishing point of jurisprudence:
a. Austin
b. Maine
c. Oppenheim
d. Holland

6. Which one of the following scholars consider International law as true law?
a. Grotius
b. Hobbes
c. Holland
d. Austin

7. “It is true that International Law is frequently violated but it doesn’t mean that International Law is not law” was observed by
a. Oppenheim
b. Hobbes
c. Holland
d. Bentham

8. Who defined the law of Nations or international law as the body of rules and principles of actions which are binding upon civilized countries in their relations with one another?
a. Grotius
b. Brierly
c. Oppenheim
d. Gray

9. How many sources of international law have been listed in Article 38(1) of the state of international court of Justice?
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Three

10. Which one of the following is not a source of international law?
a. Constitutions of Sovereign States
b. Treaties
c. International Conventions
d. International Customs and Practices

11. By the expression General principles of law recognized by civilized nations
a. Rules accepted in the municipal laws of most of the states
b. Natural law
c. Equity
d. None of the above

12. The formal sources of International law
a. Custom and treaties
b. Works of Jurists
c. Decisions of the Judicial and arbitral tribunals
d. All the above

13. Judicial decision constitute
a. Primary source of international law
b. Subsidiary means for the determination of rules of law
c. Equitable principles
d. Merely moral principles

14. ‘Calvo clause’ and ‘Dargo doctrine’ are the result of
a. The decisions of ICJ
b. Writings of jurists
c. State judicial decisions
d. None of the above

15. International Law also develops through State practices. It is known as
a. International Treaty
b. International Comity
c. International Customary Law
d. International Mortality

16. “Usage represents the twilight stage of custom, custom therefore begins where usage ends.” It is stated by:
a. Wolfke
b. Starke
c. Oppenheim
d. Lauterpacht

17. International custom is:
a. a norm of ‘jus cogens’ from which no derogation is permitted
b. a general practice of states accepted as law
c. an international usage
d. a general principle of law recognized by civilized nations

18. The main ingredients of an international customary principles are
a. Uniformity and consistency
b. Long duration
c. Generality of the practice
d. All the above

19. The doctrine of ‘Pacta sunt servanda’ is a principle governing:
a. Recognition of States
b. Treaties in International Law
c. Sovereignty of States
d. Recognition of Governments

20. “Pacta sunt Servanda” means that
a. The states are not bound to respect the agreement entered into by them
b. The agreement entered into by states will be respected and followed by them in good faith
c. The states are under no obligation to follow the agreement in good faith
d. Though the states are bound to recognize an agreement entered into by them but cannot be compelled to follow

21. Pacta sunt servanda was propounded by
a. Greek Jurist Oppenheim
b. Italian jurist Anzilotti
c. German Jurist Stroke
d. Roman Jurist Schwarzanberg

22. The sources of International law were authoritatively formulated for the first time by:
a. The league of nations
b. The charter of the united nations
c. The enactment of the International Court of Justice
d. The International Law Commission

23. “Monism” denotes that International Law and State Law
a. Represent two entirely distinct legal system
b. Are con-comitant aspects of the on system
c. Are not enforceable
d. Are not binding

24. “Dualism” denotes that International law/and state law
a. Represent two entirely distinct legal system
b. Are concomitant aspects of the one system law in general
c. Are not enforceable
d. Are not binding

25. The proponents of monistic theory do not include
a. Kelsen
b. Wright
c. Westlake
d. Triepel

26. The specific adoption or transformation theory is given by
a. Dualists
b. Monists
c. Both
d. None of the above

27. The chief exponents of dualistic theory are
a. Triepel and Anzilloit
b. Starke
c. Wright
d. Westlake

28. Recognition of a new state is
a. Political act
b. Legal act
c. Quasi legal act
d. Constitutional act

29. De jure recognition means
a. Recognition in law i.e., full-fledged conferment of status on new state in international law
b. Recognition of existing factual situation in the world community
c. Recognition neither at law nor as a fact
d. None of the above

30. De facto recognition means
a. Recognitions of a factual situations without conferring any legality on the new state or Government
b. Virtually it amounts to recognition in law
c. Nothing at law or in fact
d. Nothing in international

31. Once a de-jure recognition is given to a new State, it is
a. Revocable
b. Irrevocable
c. Revocable on non-fulfilment of conditions, if it was conditional
d. None of the above

32. The constitution theory of recognition of a new state is advanced and supported by
a. Holland
b. Oppenheim
c. Hall
d. Both a. & b.

33. Which one of the following Doctrines is related to the recognition of states?
a. Tobar doctrine
b. Drago doctrine
c. Monroe doctrine
d. All the above

34. The UN Charter was signed on 26 June, 1945, but it came into force from…………….. which is also celebrated every year as the United Nations Day.
a. November 20, 1944
b. October 24, 1944
c. October 24, 1945
d. January 1, 1945

35. October 24 is observed as UN day because
a. Charter of United Nations, 1944 came into force on this day
b. Charter of United Nations, 1945 was signed on this day
c. Statute of International Court of Justice, 1945 was established on this day
d. Agreements for the prosecution and punishment of the major war criminals was made on this day

36. UN Charter begins by proclaiming
a. ‘We the people of United Nations’
b. ‘We the states of UN’
c. ‘We Sovereign States’
d. None of these

37. What is true about India in respect of United Nations (UN)?
a. India is a member of UN since its inception in 1945 but not permanent member of council of its Security Council (UNSC)
b. India is not a member of UN or its Security Council
c. India is member of UN and also its permanent member of Security Council
d. India is seeking for membership of UN

38. The Doctrine of non-intervention under article 2(4) prohibits
a. Threat of force
b. The use of force
c. Threat of force or the use of force
d. None

39. Article 2(7) of the United Nations Charter provides for
a. Pacific settlement of all disputes
b. Non-interference in international or domestic affairs
c. International co-operation among States
d. Peaceful co-existence

40. A member of United Nations can be expelled from the organization by
a. General Assembly
b. Security Council
c. General Assembly on the recommendation of Security Council
d. All the above

41. Under what circumstances a member of United Nations can be expelled
a. A member of United Nations which has persistently violated the principle
b. A member of UN against which preventive or enforcement action has been taken by Security Council
c. A member of United Nations which has voluntarily withdrawn from membership
d. None of the above

42. The General Assembly of United Nations (UN) consists of
a. Five representatives of every member countries
b. Two representatives for member country
c. Representatives for all the member countries on the basis of one member one vote
d. None of the above

43. General Assembly of UN consists of representatives of all Member States has one vote, but it can send
a. 1 representative
b. 2 representatives
c. 3 representatives
d. 5 representatives

44. The legislative functions of the United Nations are usually within the domain of
a. Security Council
b. General Assembly
c. Trusteeship Council
d. Economic and Social Council

45. Decisions of the United Nations General Assembly on important question shall be made by way of:
a. Simple majority of members present and voting
b. Two-thirds majority of members present and voting
c. Three-fourths majority of members present and voting
d. Consensus of members present and voting

46. Under which article the liability of members for the expenses are apportioned by the General Assembly
a. Article 17(1)
b. Article 17(2)
c. Article 18
d. Article 19

47. Which among the following countries became 193rd member of United Nations?
a. South Sudan
b. Tonga in 1999
c. Slovakia in 1993
d. Tejakistan in 1992

48. The five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are
a. United States, Germany, France, Britain and Russian Federation
b. Russian Federation, United States, Britain, France and China
c. China, Russian Federation, Japan, Germany and United States
d. United States, France, Canada, Japan and Britain

49. ‘Veto’ power in the United Nations is exercised by
a. Permanent members of Security Council
b. Non-permanent members of the Security Council
c. Members of the General Assembly
d. Judges of the international courts of justice

50. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for
a. Two years
b. Five years
c. Ten years
d. Permanently

51. On which date Security Council came into existence:
a. 12 January, 1945
b. 12 January, 1948
c. 12 January, 1946
d. 12 January, 1950

52. Which one of the following bodies has the power to enforce international peace in case of existence of any threat to the peace, breach of the peace or an act of aggression?
a. General Assembly
b. Security Council
c. International Court of Justice
d. International Criminal Court

53. Which organ of the United Nations Organisation is responsible for coordinating the work of its specialized agencies?
a. General Assembly
b. Economic and Social Council
c. Security Council
d. Secretariat

54. Economic and Social Council of the United Nations Organization consists of
a. 50 members
b. 51 members
c. 52 members
d. 54 members

55. The Secretary-General of the United Nations is appointed by
a. The General Assembly
b. The Security Council
c. The General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council with the concurring votes of five permanent members
d. The General Assembly by two-third majority

56. UN secretary general heads which principal organ of the United Nations Organisation?
a. General Assembly
b. Security Council
c. Economic and Social Council
d. The Secretariat

57. The Secretary-General is the chief administrative officer of the UN. He is elected by
a. General Assembly
b. General Assembly on recommendation of the Security Council
c. General Assembly by 2/3rds majority
d. None of the above

58. Which organ of the United Nations has ceased to be operational?
a. Economic and social council
b. International court of justice
c. Secretariat
d. Trusteeship Council

59. The rule of ‘self-defence’ is provided under the United Nations Charter in
a. Article 33
b. Article 51
c. Article 10
d. Article 25

60. Which of the following is not an agency of UN?
a. Food and Agriculture Organisation
b. International Monetary Fund
c. International Committee of the Red Cross
d. International Labour Organisation

61. International Court of Justice was set up on
a. January 31, 1946
b. April 18, 1946
c. May 1, 1945
d. None of the above

62. The judges of the International Court of Justice are selected for a term of
a. 9 years
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
d. No limits

63. All members of UN are ipso facto parties to International Court of Justice. The number of judges of ICJ is fixed at
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

64. The judges of the international court of justice are elected by the
a. General Assembly, on the recommendation of the Security Council
b. Security Council and General Assembly voting simultaneously
c. Economic and Social Council
d. General Assembly and security council voting simultaneously but separately

65. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is situated in
a. Vienna
b. The Hague
c. Geneva
d. New York

66. The normal term of judges of International Court of Justice is 9 years. They are persons of high moral character, who are qualified
a. To be judge of highest tribunal in their countries
b. Noted jurist
c. Both a. & b.
d. None of the above

67. The power of requesting for advisory opinion of ICJ is entrusted to:
a. General Assembly
b. Security Council
c. Other organs of UN and specialized agencies if authorized by UN
d. All the above

68. The ICJ can also decide a case “Ex aequo et bono”
a. If the parties agree thereto
b. If the court of justice considers it to be fit
c. If the security council permits for it
d. All the above

69. The first woman judge in the ICJ
a. Sandra Williams
b. Dame Rosalyn Higgins
c. Fatima Bivi
d. None of the above

70. “Development of international law through political organs of the United Nations” has been authored by:
a. D.P.O. Connell
b. Ian Brownlie
c. Max Sorensen
d. Rosylin Higgins

71. Who is the first Indian Judge to get a full six-year term at the ICJ since independence?
a. Justice Dalveer Bhandari
b. Justice R.S. Pathak
c. Justice Nagendra Rao
d. Justice S.H. Kapadia

72. International Day for Elimination of Racial Discrimination is celebrated on
a. 21st May every year
b. 21st December every year
c. 20th April every year
d. 20th May every year

73. ‘Universal Declaration of Human Rights’ was made by General Assembly on……… which is also known as World Human Rights Day every Year.
a. 1 July, 1967
b. 10 December, 1948
c. 1 December, 1948
d. 1 October, 1945

74. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations
a. General Assembly
b. Security Council
c. Economic and Social Council
d. World Trade Organisation

75. Which amongst the following international organizations deals with refugees:
a. UNESCO
b. UNICEF
c. UNHCR
d. UNCTAD

76. A fugitive is extradited when………………
a. There is an extradition treaty between two countries
b. Matter of international comity
c. There are friendly relations between the two states
d. As a duty under International Law

77. Mr. Estrada was
a. External affairs Minister of U.S.A.
b. External affairs Minister of Mexico
c. Prime Minister of Pakistan
d. External affairs Minister of UK

78. Kellong Branid pact (part of Paris) was signed in
a. 1928
b. 1927
c. 1938
d. 1926

79. International law owes the origin of law of state succession to
a. Roman Law
b. Greek Law
c. Development of Latin American States
d. None of the above

80. Revolt of Bangladesh against Pakistan is example of
a. Universal Succession
b. Partial Succession
c. International Succession
d. National Succession

81. Succession of government is based on
a. Principle of continuity
b. Communist theory of succession
c. Law of change
d. None of the above

82. Regarding the relations between Municipal law and international law, India follows
a. Delegation theory
b. Customary International law and dualistic theory
c. Monistic theory
d. Transformation theory

83. The most important essential of a “state” is
a. Permanent population
b. Defined territory
c. Capacity to enter into international relations
d. None

84. “Universal Succession (continuity) Theory is propounded by
a. Pufendorf and Vattel
b. Max Huber
c. Starke
d. None

85. By which Art, the United Nations chapter provides the right to “self-defence” to every state
a. Art 41
b. Art 51
c. Art 61
d. Art 71

86. “State Jurisdiction” is also called as
a. Territorial Jurisdiction
b. Municipal jurisdiction and international jurisdiction
c. Protective jurisdiction
d. All the above

87. The following State is the smallest country in the world
a. Vatican City
b. Manao
c. Nauru
d. None of the above

88. Largest state in extent is
a. USA
b. Russia
c. China
d. Canada

89. The nations of the world met at San Franscisco in a conference, and the UN charter was signed on
a. June 26, 1945
b. November 1, 1945
c. October 15, 1945
d. October 24, 1945

90. Preamble of United Nations lays down four determinations in the name of
a. Heads of states
b. Nations
c. People of all nations under UN
d. Respective government

91. The determinations enshrined in the preamble of the charter are
a. Practicing tolerance & living together in peace
b. Uniting the strength of nations to maintain international peace and security
c. Promote social progress and better standards of life
d. Promotion of economic and social advancement of all

92. State which of the following is not the founding member of the UN
a. South Africa
b. India
c. Canada
d. Zambia

93. State which of the following agencies considers and approves the budget of the United Nations
a. Secretary General
b. Security Council
c. General Assembly on the recommendation of the security council
d. General Assembly

94. The principle non-use of force is envisaged under
a. Art. 2(2) of the U.N. Charter
b. Art. 2(3) of the U.N. Charter
c. Art. 2(4) of the U.N. Charter
d. Art. 55 of the U.N. Charter

95. The primary responsibility of the maintenance of international peace and security has been imposed by the UN charter on
a. The security council
b. The general assembly
c. Both the security council and the general assembly
d. The secretary general and the security council

96. Any measure taken by a state in the self defence must be immediately reported to
a. The Secretary General
b. The President of the General Assembly
c. The security council
d. Both the president of the general assembly and the secretary general

97. The permanent court of justice was
a. A principal organ of the league of nations
b. A forum made available to state to settle their disputes
c. Not an organ of the league
d. A forum made available to state to settle their disputes

98. The execution of the decision of the ICJ lies in the hands of
a. Security Council
b. ICJ itself
c. General Assembly
d. Military Staff

99. The test of nationality of the judge of the international court of justice is that he is national of the state in which he
a. Exercise voting rights
b. Exercises his professional rights
c. Exercises civil and political rights
d. Exercises his property rights

100. A member of the ICJ is elected for the term of
a. 6 years
b. 7 years
c. 8 years
d. 9 years

101. A landlocked state is
a) Surrounded by water from all sides
b) Surrounded by enemy states from all sides
c) Surrounded by land from all sides
d) None of these

102. Contiguous Zone is limited to a maximum of
a) 25 miles (24 nautical mile)
b) 50 miles
c) 12 miles
d) None of these

103. The Alabama Claims Arbitration case was decided in
a) 1872
b) 1854
c) 1890
d) None of these

104. The Convention for the protection of the Ozone Layer was done on
a) March 22, 1985
b) March 23, 1986
c) March 24, 1987
d) None of these

105. Culvo Clause means
a) A state can intervene on behalf of its nationals
b) A state can’t intervene on behalf of its nationals
c) An alien agrees not to seek the diplomatic protection of his own state
d) None of these

106. Diplomatic relations are established by
a) Mutual consent
b) A unilateral decision
c) A decision of a regional organization
d) None of these

107. Eruption of war terminates
a) All treaties
b) No treaty
c) Only political treaties
d) None of these

108. Foreign ships sailing and anchoring in the coastal waters of another state are
a) Subject to the law of Flag State
b) Subject to the law of Coastal State
c) Subject to the law of both the States
d) None of these

109. Piracy is an offense within the jurisdiction of the
a) Flag State
b) Offenders State
c) All the States
d) None of these

110. Territorial Waters are
a) Water outside the territorial limits of a state
b) Waters dividing territory of Two or more states
c) Waters Adjacent to the contiguous Zone
d) None of these

111. Non-Permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a period of
a) 7 years
b) 3 years
c) 2 years
d) None of these

112. The Montreal Convention for the safety of Civil Aviation was signed in
a) 1975
b) 1974
c) 1971
d) None of these

113. Diplomatic staff enjoys complete immunity from
a) Civil Jurisdiction
b) Criminal Jurisdiction
c) Both
d) None of these

114. Number of Judges of International Court of Justice is
a) Nine
b) Twelve
c) Fifteen
d) None of these

115. Permanent Court of International Justice was established under
a) League of Nations
b) UNO
c) European Union
d) None of these

116. Pacta Sunt Servanda means
a) Treaties between states are to be respected
b) An unwanted person
c) International Law must be honoured
d) None of these

117. Headquarters of International Court of Justice is in
a) Hague
b) Geneva
c) New York
d) None of these

118. Persona Non Grata means
a) Impracticable article of international law
b) A fugitive criminal
c) A person refused for asylum
d) None of these

119. Principles Jus Soli means
a) Grant of nationality on the basis of place birth
b) Grant of nationality on the basis of blood relationship
c) Grant of nationality through naturalization
d) None of these

120. Much of international law is derived through analogy from
a) Islamic law
b) Christian Law
c) Roman law
d) None of these

121. Vienna Convention on Law of Treaties was signed in
a) 1961
b) 1945
c) 1927
d) None of these

122. Truce mean
a) A temporary arrangement between the belligerent parties for cessation of hostilities
b) Any peace treaty to end a war
c) No War Pact
d) None of these

123. Declaration is a treaty between the contracting parties which
a) is always subject to ratification
b) is not needed to be ratified
c) may or not be subject to be ratification
d) None of these

124. Diplomatic Protection means a protection and security granted
a) to a diplomat by UNO
b) by a state to its national abroad
c) by a State to a person seeking asylum
d) None of these

125. Kellogg Briand Pact or Paris Peace Treaty was signed in
a) 1945
b) 1928
c) 1919
d) None of these

126. Recognition of new States is a matter of
a) International law
b) Constitutional law
c) Policy of the State
d) None of these

127. Diplomatic envoys in the receiving state are given immunity from
a) Civil jurisdiction
b) Criminal jurisdiction
c) Both criminal and civil jurisdiction
d) None of these

128. Territorial sea of a State is under
a) its total control
b) its control, but subject to certain international obligations
c) its control, only for exploration of mineral resources
d) None of these

129. Genocide Convention was adopted by the UN General Assembly in:
a) 1945
b) 1950
c) 1960
d) None of these

130. Bynkershoek principle is related to:
a) Measurement of maritime belt
b) Contiguous zone
c) Extradition of criminals
d) None of these

131. Principal of “double criminality” means that:
a) the person who is being extradited must be tried in both the states
b) the person who is being extradited must be tried in both the states but may be punished in one
c) that the offence for which a person is extradited must be an offence in both the states
d) None of these

132. Principal of “specialty” means that:
a) the person extradited must be awarded special punishment by the requesting state
b) the person extradited must not be awarded special punishment by the requesting state
c) the person extradited must be punished only for the offence for which he has been extradited
d) none of these

133. Features of international law include all except which of the following:
a) there is no single legislative source of international law
b) there is no single world court for interpreting international law
c) there is no world executive branch that can enforce international laws
d) None of these

134. Which of the following is not a source of international law?
a) treaties and conventions
b) custom
c) judicial decisions and teachings
d) none of these

135. The United Nations is governed by all except which of the following?
a) the general assembly
b) the security council
c) the secretariat
d) None of these

136. The group of European countries created to promote peace, security, economic and social unity is called the:
a) European market
b) European union
c) European coalition
d) None of these

137. GATT is a multilateral treaty that:
a) restricts trade among non-member countries
b) imposes multiple trade barriers among its member nations
c) establishes trade agreements and limited tariffs and trade restrictions
d) None of these

138. The oldest principle of international law is the doctrine of:
a) pacta sunt servanda
b) foreign dignitaries
c) religious freedom
d) None of these

139. Diplomatic envoys are absolutely immuned from which of the following jurisdictions:
a) criminal jurisdiction
b) civil jurisdiction
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these

140. Which of the following is not an example of Extra-Territorial Asylum:
a) asylum granted in a ship in high seas
b) asylum granted in the premises of an international institution
c) asylum granted in an embassy within the country
d) none of these

141. What is the next best known name for international law?
a) Jus gentium
b) Law of Nations
c) Law among Nations
d) None of the above

142. ________ called international law as a positive international morality.
a) Austin
b) Holland
c) Kelson
d) Vattel

143. State which of the following statement is/are correct:
a) International law governs not only a community of states but an organized international society.
b) International law is concerned not merely with the delimitation of the rights of states but also with harmonising them.
c) International law adopts itself to the need of international life and develops itself side by side with it.
d) All the above statements are correct

144. Which of the following article of the Statute of International Court of Justice enumerates “treaty” as the first source of International Law?
a) Art. 37 (1) (a)
b) Art. 38 (1) (a)
c) Art. 37 (1) (b)
d) None of the above

145. Recognition is necessary for:
a) Establishing diplomatic relations and international intercourse.
b) Filing actions in the municipal courts of other states.
c) Recovering property situated within the jurisdiction of other states.
d) All of the above

146. The principles and objectives of the U.N. were laid down at:
a) New York Conference of 1944
b) Yalta Conference of February 11, 1945
c) The San Francisco Conference of June 25, 1945
d) Dumbarton Oaks Conference of 1944

147. In maintaining international peace and security, the Security Council has:
a) Exclusive authority
b) Primary authority
c) Both primary and exclusive authority
d) Collective authority

148. Seat of I.C.J. is permanently situated at:
a) New York
b) Moscow
c) Rome
d) Hague

149. Rights of passage over Indian Territory Case (1960) 1236 lays down:
a) Customary Rights which Portugal has over the British Indian Territory survived to Portugal after India became independent.
b) A free state is not bound by the right conceded by the Imperial State over its territory.
c) The case does not clearly lay down any principle.
d) This case is not a proposition for anything

150. The principle that, “the issue of passage of warships through territorial sea depends upon the state of customary law,” is laid down in:
a) United States v. California
b) A.M. S.S.V.M. & Co. v. State of Madras
c) Corfu Channel Case
d) None of the above

151. According to Indian Maritime Zones Act, 1976, EEZ of India is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial waters and the limit of such zone is:
a) 100 miles
b) 12 miles
c) 120 miles
d) 200 miles

152. International law treats nationality as an evidence of the existence of genuine connection (link) of an individual with the state, is a statement derived from:
a) La Grand Case
b) Bread Case
c) Nottebohm Case
d) None of the above

153. The treaty adopted by General Assembly governing the activities of states in the exploration and use of Outer Space, including Moon and Celestial Bodies, is known as:
a) State sovereignty in International Space Law, 1977.
b) Outer Space Treaty of 1967.
c) Declaration of Outer Space, 1963
d) None of the above

154. International Labour Conference is the Supreme body which meets annually at ILO headquarters in:
a) Hague
b) New York
c) Geneva
d) Paris

155. Which of the following convention is/are related to Airspace?
a) Paris Convention
b) Warsaw and Chicago Convention
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above