300+ MCQs on Constitution of India
The Constitution of India is the supreme law that lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and guarantees fundamental rights to citizens.
Understanding its various aspects is essential for students, law aspirants, civil service candidates, and anyone interested in India’s legal and political system.
This article provides over 300 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) designed to help you test and deepen your knowledge of the Constitution of India.
(1) The Union List consists of
(a) 97 subjects
(b) 61 subjects
(c) 47 subjects
(d) 73 subjects
(2) An interpretation of the Constitution of India is based on the spirit of
(a) Fundamental Duties
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Federal System
(3) The Constituent Assembly was set according to the proposals of
(a) The Cripps Mission
(b) The Cabinet Mission
(c) Mountbatten Plan
(d) Rajagopalachari Plan
(4)The Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India were adopted from
(a) Canadian Constitution
(b) Russian Constitution
(c) American Constitution
(d) French Constitution
(5)Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the Fundamental Duties
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 50
(c) Article 51
(d) Article 51 A
(6) In India Right to Property is a
(a) Moral Right
(b) Legal Right
(c) Fundamental Right
(d) Personal Right
(7) Which article is referred to as ‘the jewel of the Constitution’
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 123
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 31
(8) Which word give the meaning ‘we command’ in letters
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Prohibition
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Mandamus
(9) Which of the following is not included in the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to adequate means of livelihood
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Equality
(10)The Directive Principles of State Policy have been adopted from
(a) US Constitution
(b) Irish Constitution
(c) French Constitution
(d) Canadian Constitution
(11) The Keshavananda Bharati case was associated with
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) State rights
(d) Armed rebellion
(12) The word ‘socialist’ was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which amendment
(a) 44th
(b) 27th
(c) 21st
(d) 42nd
(13) The Constitution of India is
(a) Rigid
(b) flexible
(c) Combination of rigidity and flexibility
(d) Neither rigid nor flexible
(14) Right to Freedom is guaranteed in which article
(a) 17
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 20
(15) Directive Principles of State Policy is
(a) Justifiable
(b) non-justifiable
(c) mandatory
(d) None of these
(16) The word ‘secularism’ was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which amendment
(a) 40th
(b) 42nd
(c) 44th
(d) 46th
(17) Right to Property is included in Article
(a) 32
(b) 19
(c) 31
(d) 14
(18) Right to Property was removed from Fundamental Rights by which amendment
(a) 29th
(b) 25th
(c) 44th
(d) 42nd
(19) Part IV A of the Indian Constitution deal with
(a) Fundamental Duties
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Citizenship
(20) The procedure for amending the Constitution of India is
(a) Rigid
(b) flexible
(c) partly rigid and flexible
(d) None of these
(21) Elections to the local government bodies are made mandatory by which amendment
(a) 72nd
(b) 73rd
(c) 64th
(d) 63rd
(22) Panchayath Raj is included in the
(a) Union list
(b) Concurrent list
(c) State list
(d) Residuary power
(23) Village Panchayath is organized under which article of the Constitution of India
(a) Article 37
(b) Article 38
(c) Article 39
(d) Article 40
(24) Among the following which agency conducts election to the local bodies
(a) National Election Commission
(b) State Election Commission
(c) Local bodies themselves
(d) the Government
(25) The chairman of the National Development Council is the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Vice President
(d) Governor
(26) Who appoints the chairman of the Finance Commission
(a) The President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Vice President
(27) The members of the Council of states in India is elected for a period of
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 6 years
(d) life term
(28) The President can’t ——————— Lok Sabha
(a) Dissolve
(b) adjourn
(c) prorogue
(d) summon
(29) The duration of an ordinance issued by the President of India is
(a) 6weeks
(b) 1 year
(c) 6 months
(d) 6 weeks from the date of assembly of the Parliament
(30) All speeches made in the House of People are addressed to
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Speaker
(c) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Respective Ministers
(31) Who promulgates an ordinance in states
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
(32) Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Speaker
(d) Chief Justice
(33) The amending power of the Constitution of India is described in Article
(a) 352
(b) 368
(c) 360
(d) 395
(34) The ex-officio chairman of the Council of States is
(a) Speaker
(b) Vice President
(c) Deputy Speaker
(d) Deputy Chairman
(35) In India, the Council of State is responsible to
(a) The people
(b) the state
(c) local government
(d) None of these
(36) The number of Anglo Indians nominated to the House of People is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
(37) The number of nominated members to the Council of States is
(a) 18
(b) 12
(c) 20
(d) 16
(38) The number of elected members to the House of the People
(a) 540
(b) 542
(c) 543
(d) 545
(39) Who is the person authorized to conduct the election of the speaker in a newly elected House of the People in India
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) Proterm speaker
(d) Deputy Speaker
(40) Who was the chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(41) How many methods are there to amend the Constitution of India
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
(42) Quo warranto is
(a) Writ
(b) statute
(c) Treaty
(d) Act
(43) Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deal with
(a) centre-state relations
(b) Supreme Court
(c) state emergency
(d) national emergency
(44) Which Right was remarked by Dr B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution”
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Constitutional remedies
(45) The Indian constitution guarantees how many categories of Fundamental Rights
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
(46) Which Constitutional amendment incorporated the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?
(a) 40th
(b) 44th
(c) 42nd
(d) 50th
(47) Right to property was deleted by which amendment
(a) 71st
(b) 44th
(c) 42nd
(d) 68th
(48) Who said “the Preamble is the key to the Constitution”
(a) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) C. Rajagopalachari
(49) Article 19 of the Constitution of India contains
(a) 9 Fundamental Freedoms
(b) 8 Fundamental Freedoms
(c) 7 Fundamental Freedoms
(d) 6 Fundamental Freedoms
(50) The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed by
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Vice President
(d) Council of Ministers
(51) Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) Right against exploitation
(52) Rights given in the Constitution are called Fundamental Right because
(a) They are natural rights
(b) They can’t be suspended
(c) They are a part of the Constitution
(d) They can be enforced and safeguarded by the courts
(53) Article 32 stands suspended during an emergency under Article
(a) 352
(b) 356
(c) 360
(d) 362
(54) Right to privacy is contained in
(a) Article 22
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22
(55) Freedom of expression is included in the article
(a) 15
(b) 19
(c) 21
(d) 22
(56) The emergency provisions of the Constitution of India have been borrowed from
(a) German Constitution
(b) American Constitution
(c) French Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
(57) The Concurrent list was adopted from
(a) Russian Constitution
(b) American Constitution
(c) Swiss constitution
(d) French Constitution
(58) Equality before law and Equal protection of law have been modelled on the Constitution of
(a) Britain
(b) America
(c) Russian
(d) Switzerland
(59) Which article of the constitution of India empower the President to take over the administration of a state on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery
(a) 365
(b) 352
(c) 356
(d) 360
(60) In India the power of ‘amnesty’ has been given to the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief of the army
(d) Parliament
(61) The President’s rule in a state can be continued at a stretch for a maximum period of
(a) 4years
(b) 2years
(c) 3 years
(d) one year
(62) The Council of State in India has how many elected members
(a) 250
(b) 238
(c) 245
(d) 230
(63) The executive power in India is actually exercised by
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Parliament
(64) 42nd amendment Act was adopted by the Parliament in
(a) 1967
(b) 1968
(c) 1976
(d) 1977
(65) The supreme commander of the armed forces in India is
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) None of these
(66) Public Undertaking Committee is a
(a) Cabinet Committee
(b) Parliamentary Committee
(c) Committee of a political party
(d) None of these
(67) What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of the Parliament?
(a) 3 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 months
(68) The Governor of a state is a
(a) Constitutional head
(b) real head
(c) Hereditary head
(d) nominated head
(69) Who elects the Vice President of India
(a) House of the People
(b) Both Houses of Parliament
(c) Council of States
(d) Both Houses of Parliament and state legislatures
(70) In consequence of the death or incapacity of the President, vice President can become the President for
(a) 6 months
(b) 12months
(c) 1 month
(d) 5 months
(71) Grass root democracy is related to
(a) Panchayath system
(b) Interstate council
(c) Lok Pal
(d) Regionalism
(72) The Parliament of India consists of
(a) President, House of the People and Council of state
(b) House of the People and Council of states
(c) Vice President, House of People and Council of states
(d) President, Vice President, House of the People and Council of States
(73) The President of India is elected by
(a) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
(b) Members of both Houses of Parliament
(c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
(d) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and both Houses of the state legislatures
(74) A vote taken unexpectedly without voters having been briefed in advance
(a) Snap poll
(b) by-election
(c) opinion poll
(d) exit poll
(75) The President of India can ———————- the House
(a) Sine die
(b) prorogue
(c) adjourn
(d) None of these
(76) Recess means
(a) The interval between the prorogation of Parliament and its reassembly
(b) The Parliament in session
(c) Adjournment of the House
(d) Dissolution of the House
(77) The Speaker use the ‘casting vote’
(a) to maintain status quo
(b) to challenge the opposition
(c) to defeat the government
(d) in the absence of the Prime Minister
(78) The Council of States in India can delay a money bill for
(a) indefinite period
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 month
(d) 14 days
(79) Starred questions require
(a) Oral answer
(b) unwritten answer
(c) supplementary question
(d) None of these
(80) Consolidated Fund is
(a) votable
(b) non votable
(c) non plan
(d) None of these
(81) The Council of States in India can create an All India Service by
(a) Simple majority
(b) ¾ majority
(c) 2/3 majority
(d) unanimously
(82) The Public Accounts Committee has members from
(a) House of the People
(b) Council of States only
(c) state legislatures
(d) Both Houses of Parliament
(83) Adjournment of the House is the power of the
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers
(84) The Committee on Public Undertakings has members from
(a) Both Houses of Parliament
(b) Lok Sabha only
(c) Rajya Sabha only
(d) State Legislative Council
(85) Unstarred questions require
(a) Oral answer
(b) Zero Hour
(c) supplementary question
(d) written answer
(86) Sine Die is associated with the power of the
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Prime Minister
(87) ‘Who holds the purse holds the power’ who said this
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Harold Laski
(c) Clement Attle
(d) James Madison
(88) Which article of the Constitution of India says, “there shall be a council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advice the President”
(a) Article 74
(b) Article 75
(c) Article 79
(d) Article 80
(89) The President of the Indian Republic has
(a) Only suspensive veto
(b) Absolute veto
(c) Pocket veto
(d) None of these
(90) The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to
(a) Judiciary
(b) House of the People
(c) Council of States
(d) The President
(91) Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a state can resume a Bill for the consideration of the President
(a) Article 196
(b) Article 200
(c) Article 202
(d) Article 204
(92) The term federal is derived from the Latin word ‘foedus’ which means
(a) Separation
(b) Distribution
(c) Covenant
(d) None of these
(93) Which commission has examined the centre-state relations
(a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Sri Krishna Commission
(c) Rajamannar Commission
(d) Kher Commission
(94) In the Indian federal system, residuary powers rest with the
(a) Local government
(b) State
(c) Judiciary
(d) Centre
(95) Unequal representation of states in the Council of States in India indicates
(a) The Federal nature
(b) the unitary features
(c) The bicameral features
(d) None of these
(96) The chairman of the National Development Council is
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Defence Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Home Minister
(97) The Indian federal system is largely based on the pattern of
(a) US Federal system
(b) Australian Federal system
(c) Swiss Federal system
(d) Canadian Federal system
(98) The Constitution of India adopted the federal system from the Act of
(a) 1919
(b) 1935
(c) 1947
(d) 1909
(99) National Integration Council reflects the —————– nature of the Indian Federal system
(a) Federal nature
(b) Unitary nature
(c) competitive nature
(d) con-federal nature
(100) Madan Mohan Punchi commission was appointed to study
(a) Centre-state relations
(b) State reorganization
(c) Panchayat Raj
(d) delimitation of constituencies
(101) Which article of the Constitution of India provides for co-operation between states
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 14
(d) Article 263
(102) The members of the Planning Commission have the status equal to that of
(a) Central cabinet ministers
(b) state ministers
(c) Deputy Ministers
(d) Members of Parliament
(103) Which among the following is not created by the Constitution
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) UPSC
(104) The Chairman of the Planning Commission is the
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker
(105) The Constitution of India is parliamentary because
(a) There is an elected President
(b) There is a bicameral legislature
(c) There is a Supreme Court
(d) The executive is responsible to the Legislature
(106) India is a Republic in the sense that
(a) It has an elected Head of State
(b) It has an elected Head of the Government
(c) It has a bicameral legislature
(d) It has sovereign power
(107) The Chairman of the Finance Commission is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) President
(d) Vice President
(108) The Planning Commission was formed by the Government of India by a resolution in
(a) 1950
(b) 1947
(c) 1944
(d) 1946
(109) Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India?
(a) It is democratic
(b) it is republic
(c) it is federal
(d) it is Presidential
(110) The word “procedure established by law” in the Constitution of India have been borrowed from
(a) UK
(b) USA
(c) French
(d) Germany
(111) The President of the Constituent Assembly was
(a) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(b) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(d) Dr BR Ambedkar
(112) “India that is Bharat shall be a union of states”. From which Constitution was adopted the words “union of states”?
(a) US
(b) France
(c) Swiss
(d) Canada
(113) The list of dividing powers between the union and the states are given in the ————- schedule
(a) IV
(b) V
(c) VI
(d) VII
(114) The Indian Constitution is an
(a) Enacted one
(b) evolved one
(c) unwritten one
(d) None of these
(115) Dyarchy was introduced at the Provincial level by the Act of
(a) 1892
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) 1909
(116) Dyarchy was introduced at the Centre by the Act of
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) 1947
(117) The Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly was moved by
(a) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(b) B.R.Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishna Swamy Iyer
(118) The election to the Constituent Assembly was held in
(a) June 1946
(b) July 1946
(c) August 1946
(d) September 1946/
(119) The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms are known as
(a) Government of India Act 1919
(b) Government of India Act 1935
(c) Government of India Act 1909
(d) Government of India Act 1892
(120) The Government of India Act 1909 is known as
(a) Montague Chelmsford Reforms
(b) Minto Morley Reforms
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Cripps Mission Plan
(121) The Objective Resolution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly in
(a) January 1947
(b) July 1947
(c) August 1947
(d) May 1947
(122) The Constitution Drafting Committee constituted by the Constituent Assembly consisted of
(a) 5 member
(b) 6members
(c) 7 members
(d) 8 members
(123) The Constitution of India consists of
(a) 390 articles
(b) 396 articles
(c) 395 articles
(d) 394 articles
(124) The Constitution of India was adopted on
(a) 26th January 1950
(b) 26th January 1947
(c) 26th November 1949
(d) 26th June 1948
(125) Which among the following Acts introduced the principle of election for the first time?
(a) Indian Independence Act of 1947
(b) Indian Council Act 1909
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Government of India Act 1919
(126) Directive Principles of State Policy are included in the Articles
(a) 15-24
(b) 25-32
(c) 36-51
(d) 52-60
(127)The procedure for amending the Constitution is in
(a) Article 368
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 367
(d) Article 371
(128) The Concurrent list in the Constitution of India was adopted from
(a) Switzerland
(b) Australia
(c) Canada
(d) Irish
(129) The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India was adopted from
(a) Irish
(b) Canada
(c) Germany
(d) Australia
(130) The makers of the Constitution of India adopted the concept of Judicial Review from
(a)Russia
(b) Germany
(c) US
d) Australia
(131) The Indian federal system can be transformed into a unitary system under
(a) Article 368
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 352
(132) Fundamental Rights are included in articles
(a) 15-24
(b) 12-36
(c) 36-51
(d) 52-62
(133) The Untouchability Offence Act 1955 was renamed as “The Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955” in
(a) 1972
(b) 1977
(c) 1976
(d) 1955
(134) Right to Property was omitted from Part III of the Constitution by the
(a) 42nd amendment
(b) 44th amendment
(c) 86th amendment
(d) 62nd amendment
(135) The watchword of a Parliamentary government is
(a) Stability
(b) checks and balances
(c) Political homogeneity
(d) responsibility
(136) Who presides over the joint session of the Parliament?
(a) Speaker
(b) Deputy Chairman
(c) President
(d) Vice President
(137) The position of the Vice President of India resembles to the position of Vice President of
(a) France
(b) USA
(c) Canada
(d) Russia
(138) who prepares the agenda in meeting of the Council of Ministers
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Deputy Prime Minister
(d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(139) The Chairman of the Council of States is elected by
(a) Elected members of Council of States
(b) All members of the Council of States
(c) Members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) elected members of the Parliament
(140) Which of the following is not an objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy
(a) To ensure a welfare state
(b) to ensure socio-economic justice
(c) To establish a religious state
(d) to ensure the creation of village Panchayath
(141) The Head of the government under a Parliamentary government enjoys
(a) Real power
(b) nominal power
(c) limited power
(d) no power
(142) The classification of government as unitary and federal is on the basis of
(a) Centralization of power
(b) division of power
(c) Delegation of powers
(d) separation of powers
(143) The Majority provisions of the Constitution of India can be amended by
(a) The Parliament
(b) The President
(c) the State Legislature
(d) The Parliament of the consent of the states
(144) The Community Development Program was launched on
(a) 2nd October 1951
(b) 2nd October 1952
(c) 2nd October 1953
(d) 2nd October 1954
(145) National Extension Service was launched on
(a) 2nd October 1953
(b) 2nd October 1952
(c) 2nd October 1951
(d) 2nd October 1950
(146) Political homogeneity is a feature of
(a) Presidential system
(b) Parliamentary system
(c) Democratic system
(d) Collegiate executive
(147) To organize the village Panchayath as units of self-government is an example of
(a) Liberal principle
(b) Economic principle
(c) Gandhian principle
(d) None of these
(148) The age to exercise franchise was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by
(a) 42nd amendment
(b) 44th amendment
(c) 61st amendment
(d) 72nd amendment
(149) The President of India can dissolve the House of People on the recommendation of the
(a) Vice President
(b) Chief Justice
(c) Cabinet
(d) Council of Ministers
(150) Motion suggesting that expenditure earmarked for particular ministry should be reduced is known as
(a) Adjournment motion
(b) Cut motion
(c) Privilege motion
(d) Call of attention motion
(151) A member of the Parliament formally loss his membership if he consecutively abstain himself from ——————– sitting of the House
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 90
(152) In India a person can be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a Member of Parliament for a maximum period
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 month
(c) 1 year
(d) 2 years
(153) Who is the Head of the Government in India?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The speaker
(d) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya sabha
(154) The Governor of a state can nominate how many members to the Legislative Assembly?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5
(155) Which among the following type of authority is given to the President of India?
(a) Political
(b) Defacto
(c) Dejure
(d) Popular
(156) The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Council of States
(d) House of the People
(157) The revenue estimate of a budget is prepared by
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Central Ministry of Finance
(c) Union Council of Ministers
(d) Respective Ministers
(158) The committee which examine the ‘extravagance’ of the government
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Public Undertaking Committee
(d) Ad hoc Committee
(159) The budget is an instrument of control by
(a) the Government
(b) the Executive
(c) the Legislature
(d) the Judiciary
(160) A Separate electorate for Muslims was introduced by the Act of
(a) 1919
(b) 1935
(c) 1909
(d) 1947
(161) The Cabinet Mission was appointed
(a) To work out the modalities for the transfer of power
(b) to finalise the date for the transfer of power
(c) To discuss the Plan of partition
(d) To partition of Bengal
(162) Provincial autonomy was introduced by the Act of
(a) 1935
(b) 1919
(c) 1909
(d) 1947
(163)The interim government proposed under the Cabinet Mission Plan was formed on
(a) 15th August 1946
(b) 2nd September 1946
(c) 26th July 1947
(d) 26th January 1950
(164) The British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act in
(a) July 1947
(b) January 1947
(c) June 1947
(d) August 1947
(165) Periodic elections to the local bodies are made mandatory by
(a) 72nd amendment
(b) 73rd amendment
(c) 86th amendment
(d) 87th amendment
(166) Balvant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed to review
(a) National Extension Service
(b) Panchayati Raj
(c) Electoral system
(d) Community Development Programme
(167) The Committee appointed in 1977 to study the working of Panchayati Raj institutions was under the chairmanship of
(a) Balvant Rai Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) GVK Rao
(d) LM Singhvi
(168) Mandal Commission recommendations were appointed by
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) A B Vajpayee
(c) P V Narasimha Rao
(d) V P Singh
(169) Minto Morley Reforms is also known as
(a) Government of India Act 1919
(b) Government of India Act 1892
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Government of India Act 1909
(170) How many duties are included in the Constitution as Fundamental Duties?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 9
(d) 6
(171) From among the following which amendment of the Constitution of India made “education to Children” as a Fundamental Duty?
(a) 86th
(b) 85th
(c) 42nd
(d) 72nd
(172) The National Development Council was constituted in
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1947
(173) The qualifications for the Chairman and the members of the Finance Commission are specified in
(a) Finance Act of 1951
(b) Finance Act of 1952
(c) Finance Act of 1950
(d) Finance Act of 1953
(174) Finance Commission is constituted every 5 years by the
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Union Council of Ministers
(d) Speaker
(175) The states enjoy exclusive jurisdiction over subjects of
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Residuary List
(d) Concurrent list
(176) Which is the list that contains subjects in which both the centre and the states can legislate?
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Residuary list
(d) Concurrent list
(177) The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rests with
(a) State government
(b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President
(178) The Union Government gives grants-in-aid to the states on the recommendations of the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Integration Council
(c) Finance Commission
(d) National Development Council
(179) Which among the following is empowered to constitute Inter State Council?
(a) The Parliament
(b) The President
(c) The National Development Council
(d) The Planning Commission
(180) The salary of judges during their offices can be reduced by the
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 359
(181) The unlawful detention of a person is questioned by the writ of
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Mandamus
(182) The High Court in India do not possess
(a) Original jurisdiction
(b) Appellate jurisdiction
(c) Advisory jurisdiction
(d) Revisory jurisdiction
(183) Provisions under 9th schedule
(a) Can be challenged in a court of law
(b) Can’t challenge in a court of law
(c) Can seek opinion in a court of law
(d) None of these
(184) Under which article of the Constitution the Supreme Court of India has been established
(a) 24
(b) 124
(c) 224
(d) 231
(185) The High Court has the power to issue writ under article
(a) 32
(b) 220
(c) 226
(d) 344
(186) The power of the Supreme Court can be enlarged by
(a) Cabinet
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
(187) A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from offices by
(a) Executive order
(b) Impeachment
(c) Judicial order
(d) Bureaucracy
(188) Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
(a) Article 74
(b) Article 142
(c) Article 143
(d) Article 147
(189) Subjects in the ————– schedule are beyond the scope of Judicial Review
(a) 8th
(b) 9th
(c) 12th
(d) 3rd
(190) The Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court was adopted from the Constitution of
(a) Germany
(b) US
(c) Australia
(d) Canada
(191) The Union Legislature in India is empowered
(a) Not to amend the basic structure of the Constitution
(b) to amend the basic structure of the Constitution
(c) To abrogate the basic structure
(d) None of these
(192) Preventive Detention is a reasonable restriction on
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 32
(193) Which of the following is the inevitable outcome of liberalization?
(a) Retrace of the state
(b) Reentry of the state
(c) Neutrality of the state
(d) None of these
(194) Which of the following is inherent in communalism
(a) Peace for all religious sects
(b) racial overtone
(c) Ethnic rivalry
(d) Antagonistic assertion in all spheres of life
(195) Communalism is opposed to
(a) Secular credential
(b) ethnic conflict
(c) friendship between classes
(d) All of the above
(196) Globalisation gives primacy to unbridled
(a) Welfare means
(b) Trade
(c) Socialism
(d) Consumerism
(197) Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is contained in
(a) Article 131
(b) Article 129
(c) Article 132
(d) Article 136
(198) The power of the President to consult the Supreme Court is under Article
(a) 132
(b) 143
(C) 136
(d) 131
(199) The sequence of procedure for passing a Bill in the House is
(a) First reading, Committee stage, report stage, second reading, third reading
(b) First reading, second reading, committee stage, report stage, third reading
(c) First reading, second reading, third reading, Committee stage, report stage
(d) First reading, Committee stage, second reading, third reading
(200) In a federal system, the guardian of the Constitution is
(a) the Parliament
(b) the Judiciary
(c) The Council of Ministers
(d) The National Security Advisor
(201) The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chief Justice
(202) The President gives his. resignation to the
(a) Chief Justice
(b) Parliament
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
(203) For what period does the Vice President of India hold office?
(a) 5 years
(b) Till the age of 65 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 2 Years
(204) Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President?
(a) Governor
(b) Election Commissioner
(c) Speaker ofLok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister
(205) Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments of the President?
(a) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency.
(b) They are shown separately in the budget.
(c) They are charged on the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) They do not require any parliament sanction.
(206) The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 14
(d) 12
(207) Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India?
(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(b) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state.
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Council
(d) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
(208) The Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary type of Government can remain in office till it enjoys the support of the
(a) Minority of members of the Upper House of Parliament
(b) Majority of the members of the Upper House of parliament
(c) Minority of members bf the Lower House
(d) Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament
(209) Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?
(a) Chief of the Army
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief of the Air Force
(210) Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Lok Sabha
l(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Citizens of India
(211) The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
(a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(b) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
(c) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(d) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani
(212) The Minimum age required to contest for the presidency is
(a) 23 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 30 years
(213) The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by
(a) Both Houses of Parliament
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha
(214) The Chief Minister of a Union Territory where such a setup exists is appointed by the
(a) Lt. Governor
(b) Majority party in the Legislature
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
(215) Who was the first Prime Minister of India?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
(216) In case a President dies while in office, the Vice President can act as President for a maximum period of
(a) 1 years
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 2 years
(217) The Union Council of Ministers consists of
(a) Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State, and Deputy Ministers
(b) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet Ministers
(218) Who administers the oath of office to the President of India before he enters upon the office?
(a) Chief Justice
(b) Speaker
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
(219) Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union?
(a) None of the Above
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(c) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(d) Secretary to the Government of India
(220) A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President for a maximum period of
(a) 9 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 6 months
(221) When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister?
(a) When no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
(b) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.
(c) In all circumstances
(d) In no circumstances
(222) If in a country there happens to be the office of monarchy as well as a Parliamentary form of government this monarch will be called
(a) Head of the State
(b) Head of the Cabinet
(c) Head of the government
(d) Both Head of the government and State
(223) One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha from the Vidhan Parishad is
(a) Power of impeachment
(b) Indirect election
(c) Nomination of members
(d) Tenure of membership
(224) Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio members of the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) Inter-State Council
(d) Finance Commission
(225) Who, among the following, has the final right to sanction the expenditure of public money in India?
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
(226) Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor?
(a) He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.
(b) He should be a domiciliary of the state to which he is being appointed.
(c) He should be a citizen of India.
(d) He must have completed the age of 35 years
(227) The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to
(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies.
(b) The recommendations made by the Vice President.
(c) Their role played in the political setup of the country.
(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature, and social service.
(228) Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the condition of backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures?
(a) Art 342
(b) Art 344
(c) Art 340
(d) Art 339
(229) Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
(a) Either House of Parliament
(b) Any Vidhan Sabha
(c) Only Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
(230) Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when first appointed as the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Charan Singh
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Indira-Gandhi
(231) What is the minimum age for appointment as a Governor?
(a) 35 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
(232) Chief Minister of a State is responsible to
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly
(d) Governor
(233) The administrative and operational control of the Armed Forces is exercised by the
(a) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs with the Prime Minister as the Chairman
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Three Chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force Staff
(d) President
(234) What is the position of a Minister of State in the Central Government?
(a) He is a Minister of the Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.
(b) He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet.
(c) He is the nominee of the State Governor.
(d) He is the nominee of the State Cabinet.
(235) Who among the following is directly responsible to Parliament for all matters concerning the Defence Services of India?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
(236) How many times can the President of India seek re-election to his post?
(a) Once
(b) 3 times
(c) 2 times
(d) Any number of times
(237) Who among the following has the power to form a new state within the Union of India?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Supreme Court
(238) Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the President on matters on which his advice is sought?
(a) If the Council of Ministers so desires.
(b) Yes
(c) No
(d) It is discretionary
(239) When the Vice President officiates as President, he draws the salary of
(a) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Both (A) and ( C )
(c) President
(d) Member of Parliament
(240) Who among the following can attend meetings of the Union Cabinet?
(a) President
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Deputy Ministers
(241) Who among the following has the Constitutional authority to make rules and regulations fixing the number of members of the UPSC
(a) Vice President
(b) President
(c) Home Ministry
(d) Cabinet Secretary
(242) Under whose advice the President of India declare an Emergency under Article 352?
(a) Chief Ministers of all states
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Cabinet
(d) Council of Ministers
(243) Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice President is available?
(a) Senior-most Governor of a State
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Speaker ofLok Sabha
(d) Auditor General of India
(244) A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 36 must be approved by the Parliament within
(a) 3 months
(b) 2 months
(c) I Month
(d) 6 weeks
(245) The Union Council of Ministers is appointed by the
(a) President of India, according to his discretion
(b) President of lndia on the advice of the Prime Minister
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Parliament
(246) The President can proclaim an emergency on the written advice of the
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Union Cabinet
(247) The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) President
(c) House of the People
(d) Prime Minister
(248) Article 78 of the Constitution deals with
(a) The President’s power to get information from the Council of Ministers.
(b) Prime Minister’s duty regarding keeping the President informed about the government’s decisions and policies.
(c) Emergency powers of the President
(d) President’s power to send advisory messages to the Parliament.
(249) The maximum duration for which the Vice President may officiate as the President is
(a) 1 year
(b) 6 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 9months
(250) The President’s Rule in a State can be continued for a maximum period of
(a) 2 years
(b) 1 year
(c) 6 months
(d) 2 1/2 years
(251) The Chairman and members of State Public Service Commission are appointed by the
(a) President
(b) Chairman, UPSC
(c) Governor
(d) Prime Minister
(252) When a State Governor dies or resigns, who normally exercises his funciibns till a new Governor is appointed?
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Advocate General of the State
(c) Secretary General of the Governor
(d) A person designated by State Cabinet
(253) When a financial emergency is proclaimed
(a) Union budget will not be presented
(b) Salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced
(c) Repayment of government debts will stop
(d) Payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed
(254) Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC?
(a) President
(b) Speaker ofLok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Prime Minister
(255) Which of the following is correct regarding the Governor of a State?
(a) All of the above
(b) He can recommend to the President to impose President’s Rule in the State.
(c) No money bill can be introduced in the State Legislature without his prior permission.
(d) He has the power to issue ordinances when the legislature is not in session.
(256) If the President wants to resign from office, he may do so by writing to the
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Speaker ofLok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice President
(257) Is the Prime Minister bound to advise is sought?
(a) Yes, if the Council of Ministers so desires
(b) Yes
(c) No
(d) It is discretionary
(258) The five-year term of the President is calculated from the
(a) First day of the month following the month he assumes charge
(b) Date of his election result
(c) Day he assumes charge
(d) First day of the month, he assumes charge
(259) Who is the ex officio Chairman of the Council of States?
(a) Vice President
(b) Leader of the opposition
(c) President
(d) Speaker
(260) Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s rule promulgated in any state in India?
(a) 326
(b) 370
(c) 380
(d) 356
(261) At a time, President’s rule can be imposed on a state for a maximum period of
(a) 1 year
(b) 5 years
(c) 2 years
(d) 4 years
(262) The Chairman of the Plannins Commission in India is the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Minister of Planning
(d) Finance Minister
(263) When Parliament is not in session, the President can promulgate an ordinance which is to be ratified by the Parliament within
(a) 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament
(b) 6 months from the reassembly of Parliament
(c) 6 weeks from the date of issue of the ordinance.
(d) 3 months from the date of issue of the ordinance.
(264) The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising of
(a) Elected members of the Lok Sabha and state Legislative Assemblies.
(b) Elected member of both Houses of Parliament and the State Legislative Assembly
(c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
(d) Elected member of the State Legislative Assemblies
(265) If the office of the President of India falls vacant, within what time should the next president be elected?
(a) Within 2 months
(b) Within 1 year
(c) Within 6 months
(d) immediately
(266) The President can proclaim a state of emergency in case of
(a) All of the above
(b) Threat to the financial stability of the country.
(c) External aggression or internal disturbances threatening the security of the country,
(d) Failure of constitutional machinery in a particular state.
(267) In the election of the President, the value of the vote of the Lok Sabha members
(a) Differs according to the geographical size of the respective state.
(b) None of these
(c) Differs according to the number of votes a member represents.
(d) is same
(268) The Indian President is
(a) None of these
(b) Titular executive
(c) Real executive
(d) Real/Titular executive
(269) The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India is
(a) 30 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 25 years
(270) The President may for violation of the Constitution be removed from the office by
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Electoral College consists of members of Parliament and the State Legislatures.
(c) Impeachment
(d) A no-confidence vote.
(271) In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion?
(a) In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
(b) None of the Above
(c) In appointing the Pgime Minister
(d) Both of these
(272) The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Minister and Council of Ministers are all members of
(a) National Development Council
(b) Regional Council
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Zonal Council
(273) The President’s Rule in a state means that the state is ruled by
(a) A caretaker government
(b) The Chief Minister nominated by the President
(c) The Governor of the State
(d) The President directly
(274) The Chief Minister of a Union Territory, whenever such a setup exists, is appointed by
(a) The Lt. Governor
(b) The majority party in the legislature
(c) The President
(d) The Prime Minister
(275) Under what article of the Constitution of India the President take over the administration of a state in case its constitutional machinery breafs down?
(a) Art 352
(b) Art 343
(c) Art 356
(d) Art 83
(276) The President can make laws through ordinances
(a) Only on subjects contained in the concurrent list
(b) Under no circumstances
(c) On certain subjects, even when Parliament is in session.
(d) During the recess of the Parliament
(277) Which of the following qualifications is not essential for a person to become the Vice-President?
(a) He must be an Indian.
(b) He must be qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) He must not be less than 35 years old.
(d) He must be a graduate.
(278) How many types of emergencies have been visualised in the Constitution of India?
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Two
(279) The impeachment proceedings against the Vice President can be initiated
(a) Only in the Lok Sabha
(b) In neither House of Parliament
(c) In either House of Parliament
(d) Only in Rajya Sabha
(280) Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Chief Minister of the State
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) President
(281) The President of India can be removed from his office by the
(a) Parliament
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Lok Sabha
(282) If the President returns a Bill sent to him for his assent and the Parliament once again passes the Bill in its original form, then the President
(a) Can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the bill
(b) Gives assent to the bill
(c) Can once again return the bill for further reconsideration
(d) Can ask for a referendum on the bill
(283) If a Minister loses a no-confidence motion, then
(a) Lok Sabha is dissolved
(b) Only the Prime Minister and that Minister resign.
(c) The whole Council of Ministers resigns
(d) The Minister resigns
(284) The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to the
(a) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
(b) Dowry Prohibition Bill
(c) Hindu Code Bill
(d) PEPSU Appropriation Bill
(285) The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for parliament and legislature vests with the
(a) President
(b) Election Commission
(c) Cabinet
(d) Prime Minister
(286) What is contained in the tenth schedule of the Constitution?
(a) Languages recognised by the constitution
(b) Forms of oath or affirmation
(c) Laws that cannot be challenged in any court of law
(d) Provision regarding disqualification on grounds of defection
(287) The Election Commission holds an election for
(a) The Parliament, the State Legislature, and the posts of the President and the Vice-President
(b) The Parliament, State legislative Assemblie,s and the State Council
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
(288) For Election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) Any citizen of India
(b) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a Constituency
(c) Anyone residing in India
(d) A resident of the Constituency from which the election to be contested
(289) In India, political parties are given recognition by
(a) Election Commission
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President
(d) Law Commission
(290) The Vice President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of
(a) Both Houses of Parliament and the state legislative
(b) Both Houses of Parliament
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
(291) The election commission does not conduct the elections to the
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) President’s election
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Local Bodies
(292) The maximum age prescribed for election as president is
(a) No such Limit
(b) 62 years
(c) 58 years
(d) 60 years
(293) The power to decide an election petition is vested in the
(a) High Court
(b) Election Commission
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
(294) To elect the President of India, which one of the following election procedures is used?
(a) System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
(b) Secondary voting system
(c) Proportional representation through the list system
(d) Collective Voting System
(295) In which year was the first general election held in India?
(a) 1950-51
(b) 1948-49
(c) 1951-52
(d) 1947-48
(296) Elections to the House of the People and the Legislative Assemblies of States in India are conducted based on
(a) Single Transferable Vote
(b) Proportional Representation
(c) Limited suffrage
(d) Adult Franchise
(297) Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
(298) Which among the following is not a part of the electoral reforms?
(a) Installation of electronic voting machines
(b) Appointment of Election Commissioner
(c) Registration of Political parties
(d) Disqualifying the offenders
(299) Recognition of a political party is accorded by
(a) The Election Commission
(b) A Committee of Whips
(c) The ministry of parliament Affairs
(d) The speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of national Parties and the Speaker of the Legislative assemblies in the case of regional parties
(300) The Chief Minister of a state in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
(a) He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(b) He is a caretaker Chief Minister
(c) He himself is a candidate
(d) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the state Legislature
Attention all law students!
Are you tired of missing out on internship, job opportunities and law notes?
Well, fear no more! With 2+ lakhs students already on board, you don't want to be left behind. Be a part of the biggest legal community around!
Join our WhatsApp Groups (Click Here) and Telegram Channel (Click Here) and get instant notifications.
