240+ Arbitration and ADR MCQs Question Bank

1:- Who may be treated as legal representative, within the meaning of this Act:
A. A new trustee appointed or elected on the death of the deceased trustee.
B. An assignee from a deceased zamindar or to whom the holding reverts on the death of a tenant.
C. A trespasser or a person who claims adversely the estate of the deceased
D. None of the above

2:- In order to facilitate the conduct of the arbitral proceedings, the parties, or the arbitral tribunal with the consent of the parties:
A. May arrange for the settlement of the case
B. May arrange to provide legal aid.
C. May arrange for administrative assistance by a suitable institution or person.
D. May arrange for the reconciliation in the matter

3:- An oral arbitration agreement:
A. May be recognised at the discretions of the arbitrators
B. Is not recognised as an arbitration agreement.
C. May be recognised depending upon the facts and circumstances of case to case.
D. May be recognised at the discretion of the parties

4:- What is true about the number of arbitrators:
A. Failing the determination the number of arbitrators, the arbitral tribunal shall consist of a sole arbitrator.
B. The parties are free to determine the number of arbitrators, provided that such number shall not be an even number.
C. Both A and B are correct.
D. None of the above

5:- The mandate of an arbitrator shall terminate:
A. The arbitrator once appointed cannot be terminated.
B. The arbitrator once appointed cannot be terminated.
C. Where he withdraws from office for any reason.
D. Both A and C are correct.

6:- What is the Time limit for arbitral award:
A. Shall be made by a 2/3rd majority of its members.
B. Shall be made by a majority of all its members.
C. Shall be made by the chief arbitrator.
D. Shall be made by all its members.

7:- An arbitral award shall be:
A. made in writing and may be signed by any one of the member of the arbitral tribunal
B. made in writing and shall be signed by the members of the arbitral tribunal.
C. made in writing and shall be signed by the Registrar
D. need not in writing

8:- An application for setting aside may not be made __________have elapsed from the date on which the party making that application had received the arbitral award:
A. Before three months
B. Before one month
C. After three months
D. After one month

9:- The arbitral tribunal shall:
A. have a lien on the arbitral award for only administration fee.
B. have a lien on the arbitral award for only legal fee.
C. not have a lien on the arbitral award for any unpaid costs of the arbitration.
D. have a lien on the arbitral award for any unpaid costs of the arbitration.

10:- An arbitral award on differences between persons arising out of legal relationships, whether contractual or not, considered as commercial under the law in force in India, made on or after the 11 day of October, 1960 in pursuance of an agreement in writing for arbitration to which the Convention set forth in the First Schedule applies, and in one of such territories as the Central Government, being satisfied that reciprocal provisions have been made may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be territories to which the said Convention applies. This is called as:
A. Foreign award
B. Domestic award
C. Arbitration award
D. Conciliation

11:- Who have the power to make rules:
A. The Supreme Court may make rules consistent with this Act as to all proceedings before the Court under this Act
B. The Central Government may make rules consistent with this Act as to all proceedings before the Court under this Act.
C. The High Court may make rules consistent with this Act as to all proceedings before the Court under this Act.
D. None of the above

12:- What is the fee payable when the sum in dispute is upto Rs. 5 Lakh:
A. Rs. 50000.
B. Rs.40000.
C. Rs.55000.
D. Rs.45000.

13:- The following grounds give rise to justifiable doubts as to the independence or impartiality of arbitrators:
A. A close family member of the arbitrator has a significant financial interest in the outcome of the dispute.
B. The arbitrator or a close family member of the arbitrator has a close relationship with a third party who may be liable to recourse on the part of the unsuccessful party in the dispute
C. The arbitrator holds shares, either directly or indirectly, in one of the parties or an affiliate of one of the parties that is privately held
D. All of the above.

14:- Chapters II of Part II of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deal with the enforcement of certain foreign awards made under:
A. The New York and Geneva Convention
B. The New York Convention
C. The Geneva Convention
D. None of the above

15:- An appeal shall lie from the orders(and from no others) to the court authorised by law to hear appeals from original decrees of the court passing the order:
A. Setting aside or refusing to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34.
B. Granting any measures under Section 9
C. Refusing to grant any measures under Section 9
D. All of the above

16:- An arbitration with three arbitrators, each party shall appoint one arbitrator, and the two appointed arbitrators shall appoint the third arbitrator who shall act as the presiding arbitrator. What is time limit within which the parties have to appoint an arbitrator:
A. Within 30 days
B. Within 45 days
C. Within 60 days
D. Within 15 days

17:- An arbitral agreement should NOT have the followings:
A. Arbitration agreement may not be in writing.
B. Arbitration agreement by the parties to submit to arbitration all or certain disputes
C. Arbitration agreement should have mention of a place
D. Arbitration Agreement should bear a date

18:- “Arbitral Award”:
A. Does not include an interim award
B. Inclusion of an interim award depends upon the case to case basis
C. Includes an interim award
D. May or may not include an interim award

19:- The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is based on:
A. UNCITRAL’s Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration.
B. Schedule II of the Code of Civil Procedure of 1908
C. The provisions of the Constitution of India
D. The model of the English Act of 1899

20:- What is NOT true about the arbitrator:
A. The person who is appointed as an arbitrator is NOT required to give his consent to act as an arbitrator.
B. The arbitrator must be absolutely disinterested and impartial.
C. He is an extra-judicial tribunal whose decision is binding on the parties.
D. Arbitrator is a person who is appointed to determine differences and disputes between two or more parties by their mutual consent.

21:- The interim measures by the Court can be ordered on an application by a party:
A. During the arbitral proceedings
B. At any time before the enforcement of an award
C. Before the arbitral proceedings
D. All the options are correct.

22:- When an arbitrator may be challenged:
A. he does not possess the qualifications agreed to by the parties.
B. circumstances exist that give rise to justifiable doubts as to his independence or impartiality
C. Both the options A and B are correct.
D. None of the above.

23:- Where the place of arbitration is situate in India, the arbitration other than an international commercial arbitration, the arbitral tribunal shall decide the dispute submitted to arbitration:
A. In accordance with the special law for the time being in force in India.
B. In accordance with the substantive law for the time being in force in India.
C. In accordance with the general law for the time being in force in India.
D. In accordance with the common law for the time being in force in India.

24:- How the appointment of conciliators is made:
A. If there are two conciliator each party may appoint one conciliator.
B. If there are three conciliators, each party may appoint one conciliator and the parties may agree on the name of the third conciliator who shall act as the presiding conciliator
C. If there is one conciliator, the parties may agree on the name of a sole conciliator.
D. All the options are correct.

25:- Which of the following grounds will rise to justifiable doubts as to the independence or impartiality of arbitrators:
A. The arbitrator’s law firm currently has a significant commercial relationship with one of the parties or an affiliate of one of the parties.
B. The arbitrator is a lawyer in the same law firm which is representing one of the parties.
C. The arbitrator’s law firm had a previous but terminated involvement in the case without the arbitrator being involved himself or herself.
D. All of the above

26:- The conciliator is not bound by the:
A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
B. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
C. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D. Both B and C are correct

27:- An arbitral tribunal shall be deemed to have entered upon the reference on the date on which the arbitrator:
A. have received notice, in writing, of their appointment
B. have received notice, orally, of their appointment
C. have received notice, of their appointment.
D. have given the consent of their appointment

28:- Who can amend the Fourth Schedule as provided in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:
A. The State Government having jurisdiction
B. The Central Government
C. The Arbitrator
D. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

29:- Section 10 of the Act states that, the parties are free to determine the number of arbitrators, provided that such number shall not be an even number. However if they fail to determine the number of arbitrators:
A. the arbitral tribunal shall consist of a sole arbitrator.
B. the arbitral tribunal shall be constituted among the panel of arbitrators
C. the arbitral tribunal shall not be constituted
D. None of the above.

30:- An arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in:
A. an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement; or
B. an exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other.
C. a document signed by the parties;
D. All of the above

31:- “International commercial arbitration” means an arbitration relating to disputes arising out of legal relationships, considered as commercial under the law in force in India and where at least one of the parties is:
A. the Government of a foreign country
B. an individual who is a national of, or habitually resident in, any country other than India
C. a body corporate which is incorporated in any country other than India; or an association or a body of individuals whose central management and control is exercised in any country other than India
D. All the options are correct

32:- The Act is based on model law drafted by United Nations Commission on International Trade Laws (UNCITRAL), to provide uniformity and certainty to both categories of cases
A. International commercial arbitration
B. Both on domestic arbitration as well as international commercial arbitration.
C. On domestic arbitration
D. None of the above.

33:- Who may be treated as legal representatives:
A. A person on whom the estate of a deceased person devolves on the death of the party acting in a representative’s capacity.
B. A person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person.
C. A person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased.
D. All the options are correct

34:- The jurisdiction of Civil Court:
A. Is barred after an application under Section8 of the Act is made for arbitration.
B. Can be exercised after an application under section 8 of the Act is made for arbitration.
C. Can be exercised after an application under section 8 of the Act is made for arbitration, subject to the permission of the High Court.
D. None of the above

35:- The arbitral proceedings in respect of a particular dispute shall commence:
A. On the date on which a request for that dispute to be referred to arbitration is filed by the applicant.
B. On the date on which a request for that dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent
C. On the date on which a request for that dispute to be referred to arbitration is sent to the respondent.
D. On the date on which the arbitrators accepts the dispute.

36:- Under Fast Track Procedure the arbitral tribunal shall consist of:
A. a sole arbitrator who shall be chosen by previous arbitral tribunal.
B. a sole arbitrator who shall be the senior most among the panel of arbitrators.
C. a sole arbitrator who shall be chosen by the parties.
D. None of the above.

37:- The making of an award is a rational process which is accentuated by recording the reasons. The award should contain reasons. An award can be made without reasons only when:
A. Where the award has been made under Section 30 of the Act i.e. where the parties settled the dispute and the arbitral tribunal has recorded the settlement in the form of an arbitral award on agreed terms.
B. Where the arbitration agreement expressly provides that no reasons are to be given,
C. Both A and B are correct.
D. None of the above

38:- If the time for making an application to set aside the award has expired or the application has been refused, the award shall be enforced under the in the same manner as it were a decree of the Court:
A. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
B. The Indian Contract, 1872
C. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
D. The Indian Penal Code, 1860

39:- What is obligatory on the party applying for the enforcement of a foreign award to produce before the Court:
A. The original agreement for arbitration or a duly-certified copy thereof
B. Such evidence as may be necessary to prove that the award is a foreign award
C. The original award or a duly authenticated copy thereof
D. All of the above.

40:- Under what circumstances the recognition and enforcement of an arbitral award may be refused if the competent authority in the country where recognition and enforcement is sought finds that:
A. the recognition or enforcement of the award would be contrary to the public policy of that country.
B. the subject-matter of the difference is not capable of settlement by arbitration under the law of that country
C. Both the options are correct.
D. None of the above.

41:- The term “close family member” as mentioned in Fifth Schedule DO NOT include:
A. In laws
B. parent.
C. spouse,
D. sibling,

42:- When an award would be in conflict with public policy:
A. It it violates Section 75 or Section 81 of the Act relating to confidentiality and admissibility of evidence in other proceedings
B. If it is induced or affected by fraud
C. If is induced by corruption
D. All the options are correct.

43:- If the two appointed arbitrators fail to agree on the third arbitrator within thirty days from the date of their appointment, the appointment shall be made, upon request of a party:
A. By any person designated by him
B. By any institution designated by him.
C. By the Chief Justice
D. All the options are correct.

44:- The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
A. Enforcement of foreign arbitral awards
B. Domestic arbitration
C. International commercial arbitration,
D. All of the above

45:- ‘UNCITRAL’ stands for:
A. United Nations Commission on National Trade Law
B. United Nations Commission on International Trade Law
C. Union Nations Commission on International Trade Law
D. United Nations Commission on Indian Trade Law

46:- Who are “legal representative”:
A. A person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person
B. Where a party acts in a representative character, the person on whom the estate devolves on the death of the party so acting
C. Any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased
D. All of the above.

47:- The parties may, by consent, extend the period specified in sub-section (1) of Section 29A, which is twelve months for making award for a further period:
A. not exceeding six months
B. not exceeding one months
C. not exceeding three months
D. not exceeding five months

48:- A sum directed to be paid by an arbitral award shall, unless the award otherwise directs, carry interest at the rate of prevalent on the date of award, from the date of award to the date of payment:
A. two per cent below than the current rate of interest
B. one per cent below the current rate of interest
C. two per cent higher than the current rate of interest
D. one per cent higher than the current rate of interest

49:- Section 37(3) prohibits making of second appeal from an order passed in appeal under Section 37(1) and(2) of the Act:
A. But the right to appeal to the Supreme Court is always open to a party aggrieved.
B. But the right to revision before the Supreme Court is always open to a party aggrieved.
C. But the right to appeal to the High Court is always open to a party aggrieved.
D. But the right to revision before the High Court is always open to a party aggrieved.

50:- Chapters I of Part II of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deal with the enforcement of certain foreign awards made under:
A. The Geneva Convention
B. The New York and Geneva Convention
C. The New York Convention
D. None of the above.

51:- Which of the following best defines Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)?
A. A system that resolves disputes solely through litigation
B. A process of resolving disputes without resorting to traditional court litigation
C. A method that replaces the need for any legal intervention
D. A procedure that mandates arbitration only

52:- Which of the following is not considered an ADR process?
A. Mediation
B. Negotiation
C. Litigation
D. Conciliation

53:- ADR is generally preferred over litigation because it is:
A. More adversarial
B. More time-consuming
C. Less expensive and more flexible
D. More formal and rigid

54:- Which of the following is a key principle underlying ADR?
A. Compulsion to settle
B. Party autonomy
C. Imposition of decisions by a judge
D. Reliance on statutory procedures only

55:- The major objective of ADR is to:
A. Increase the caseload of courts
B. Provide a quick, cost-effective, and amicable solution
C. Replace judicial decisions entirely
D. Enforce penalties on disputing parties

56:- Which ADR method involves a neutral third party facilitating negotiation but not imposing a decision?
A. Arbitration
B. Litigation
C. Mediation
D. Adjudication

57:- In the context of ADR, “conciliation” is best described as:
A. A binding decision by a third party
B. A process where the conciliator suggests a settlement
C. A formal court procedure
D. A method of cross-examination

58:- Which of the following is NOT an advantage of ADR?
A. Confidentiality
B. Flexibility in procedure
C. Public record of proceedings
D. Preservation of relationships

59:- ADR is particularly effective in resolving disputes in which of the following areas?
A. Criminal law disputes
B. Family disputes
C. Constitutional law issues
D. Complex commercial litigation only

60:- The voluntary nature of ADR implies that:
A. Participation is mandated by law
B. Parties choose to engage in ADR without coercion
C. Only one party may opt for ADR
D. The outcome is always binding

61:- Which of the following best describes mediation?
A. A process where a third party imposes a decision
B. A facilitative process where a mediator assists parties in reaching a mutually acceptable solution
C. A procedure that is only used in international disputes
D. A substitute for criminal proceedings

62:- In mediation, the role of the mediator is:
A. To decide the outcome of the dispute
B. To enforce legal penalties
C. To facilitate dialogue and help the parties find common ground
D. To represent one of the parties

63:- A key advantage of mediation is that it:
A. Always produces a legally binding outcome
B. Enhances the relationship between disputing parties
C. Increases the cost of dispute resolution
D. Prolongs the resolution process

64:- Which statement about confidentiality in mediation is true?
A. All statements made during mediation are admissible in court
B. Confidentiality is optional and determined by the mediator
C. Confidentiality encourages open communication between the parties
D. Confidentiality is irrelevant in mediation

65:- In mediation, if the parties reach an agreement, it is typically memorialized in:
A. A non-binding memorandum
B. A written settlement agreement
C. An informal handshake only
D. A court decree

66:- Arbitration is best defined as:
A. A process where a neutral third party facilitates negotiations without rendering a decision
B. A method where a neutral third party makes a binding decision after hearing both sides
C. A form of negotiation without any third-party involvement
D. A process used exclusively in labor disputes

67:- In arbitration, the decision rendered by the arbitrator is:
A. Always advisory
B. Typically binding and enforceable
C. Non-binding unless approved by a court
D. Open to appeal on any grounds

68:- Which of the following is a common advantage of arbitration?
A. Extensive formal procedures
B. Expedited resolution compared to litigation
C. Higher costs than court litigation
D. Public disclosure of all evidence

69:- Which international convention facilitates the enforcement of arbitral awards across borders?
A. The Geneva Convention
B. The New York Convention
C. The Vienna Convention
D. The Hague Convention

70:- In the context of arbitration, “finality” means:
A. The arbitrator’s decision can be appealed indefinitely
B. The decision is conclusive with very limited grounds for appeal
C. The process is never fully completed
D. The decision is advisory only

71:- Which of the following parties generally chooses arbitration over litigation?
A. Parties seeking a public record of the proceedings
B. Parties desiring a private and speedy resolution
C. Parties that want to delay the resolution process
D. Parties with no interest in binding decisions

72:- In commercial disputes, arbitration is often preferred because:
A. It is less formal and more efficient than court litigation
B. It always results in a favorable outcome for one party
C. It does not require any written agreements
D. It is the only legally acceptable method

73:- Which of the following best describes “expedited arbitration”?
A. A slower process with extended hearings
B. A streamlined arbitration process designed to resolve disputes quickly
C. Arbitration that is conducted only online
D. A process that involves multiple arbitrators over a long period

74:- In arbitration, the “seat” or “place” of arbitration refers to:
A. The physical location where the arbitration is conducted
B. The opinion of the arbitrator
C. The jurisdiction whose law governs the arbitration
D. Both a and c

75:- Which of the following is an essential element in an arbitration agreement?
A. A clause that excludes any form of settlement
B. A clause that specifies the scope of disputes to be arbitrated
C. A clause that mandates immediate litigation
D. A clause that nullifies any arbitration proceedings

76:- Negotiation in ADR is characterized by:
A. A third party making decisions
B. Direct discussions between the parties to reach a settlement
C. Formal court procedures
D. Mandatory participation of legal representatives

77:- A primary benefit of negotiation is that it:
A. Always requires the involvement of a mediator
B. Preserves the autonomy and control of the parties over the outcome
C. Leads to a binding resolution imposed by an external party
D. Involves complex procedural rules

78:- In a successful negotiation, the term “win-win” refers to:
A. One party’s complete victory
B. A compromise where both parties feel they have achieved their objectives
C. A scenario where neither party wins
D. A situation where legal costs increase

79:- Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of negotiation?
A. Flexibility in process and outcome
B. Mutual decision-making
C. Formal submission of evidence
D. Informality in discussions

80:- What is the first step in the negotiation process?
A. Drafting the final agreement
B. Presenting counterclaims
C. Establishing the issues and interests of the parties
D. Initiating litigation

81:- Conciliation differs from mediation in that the conciliator:
A. Does not suggest any solutions
B. Takes an active role in proposing a settlement
C. Has the power to enforce a decision
D. Represents one of the parties

82:- Which of the following statements is true about conciliation?
A. It is a non-binding process where the conciliator helps the parties identify mutually acceptable solutions
B. It always results in a legally enforceable award
C. It is identical to arbitration in all respects
D. It involves only written communication between parties

83:- In the context of conciliation, the conciliator is expected to:
A. Impose a decision on the parties
B. Act as a neutral advisor suggesting ways to settle the dispute
C. Represent the interests of the dominant party
D. Delay the resolution process

84:- Conciliation is most effective when the parties:
A. Are unwilling to communicate
B. Trust the neutral third party and each other
C. Refuse to compromise
D. Depend solely on court procedures

85:- Which of the following is an advantage of conciliation?
A. It guarantees a binding resolution
B. It encourages the parties to collaborate in finding a solution
C. It eliminates the need for any written record
D. It requires formal hearings

86:- In India, the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is a key legislation governing:
A. Litigation procedures only
B. Both arbitration and conciliation processes
C. Only international commercial disputes
D. Mediation exclusively

87:- Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitration agreement must be in:
A. Oral form only
B. Writing
C. Electronic form only
D. Not specified

88:- The term “institutional arbitration” refers to:
A. Arbitration administered by private individuals only
B. Arbitration administered by a pre-established institution
C. Arbitration that does not follow any set rules
D. Arbitration in informal settings

89:- Which of the following is a well-known international institution for arbitration?
A. International Court of Justice
B. International Chamber of Commerce (ICC)
C. World Trade Organization
D. United Nations Security Council

90:- The principle of “competence‐competence” in arbitration means that:
A. The arbitral tribunal has the authority to rule on its own jurisdiction
B. The parties decide the arbitrator’s qualifications
C. The court must always decide on the tribunal’s jurisdiction
D. The tribunal cannot question its own authority

91. Which of the following best describes “med-arb”?
a) A process where mediation is attempted first and, if unsuccessful, the dispute is referred to arbitration
b) A method that combines litigation and mediation
c) A system that solely relies on arbitration
d) A process where the mediator is also the judge in a court

92. Which of the following is an example of a domestic ADR institution in India?
a) The London Court of International Arbitration
b) The Indian Council of Arbitration
c) The American Arbitration Association
d) The International Centre for Dispute Resolution

93. The enforcement of international arbitration awards in India is primarily governed by:
a) The Indian Penal Code
b) The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
c) The Indian Evidence Act
d) The Civil Procedure Code

94. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, if a party is dissatisfied with an arbitral award, the grounds for setting it aside are:
a) Broad and allow for re-litigation of the entire case
b) Limited and specifically enumerated
c) Unlimited and discretionary
d) Non-existent

95. Which concept in ADR emphasizes the importance of flexibility and party autonomy?
a) Strict adherence to formal rules
b) Procedural informality
c) Rigid statutory interpretation
d) Adversarial litigation

96. Compared to litigation, ADR is often characterized by:
a) Greater formalism
b) Reduced procedural constraints
c) Mandatory public hearings
d) Extensive pre-trial discovery

97. In the context of ADR, “early neutral evaluation” is a process where:
a) A neutral expert provides an early, non-binding assessment of the dispute
b) The parties immediately proceed to arbitration
c) The court issues a preliminary injunction
d) The negotiation is abandoned

98. Which of the following is NOT typically a stage in the ADR process?
a) Pre-dispute agreement
b) Initiation of dispute
c) Judicial appeal
d) Final settlement

99. One of the criticisms of ADR is that it may:
a) Increase transparency in dispute resolution
b) Lack the procedural safeguards found in formal litigation
c) Always ensure a fair outcome
d) Be too rigid in its process

100. A key factor influencing the choice between ADR and litigation is:
a) The desire for a speedy and cost-effective resolution
b) The need for a public trial
c) The insistence on an adversarial process
d) The absence of any legal counsel

101. Which step is essential before initiating an ADR process?
a) Filing a lawsuit immediately
b) Conducting a thorough analysis of the dispute and the interests of the parties
c) Ignoring any potential settlement options
d) Declaring arbitration as the only option

102. In negotiation, the concept of “BATNA” stands for:
a) Best Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement
b) Basic Agreement That Needs Acceptance
c) Binding Arbitration Trial Not Applicable
d) Best Arbitration Technique Available

103. Understanding one’s BATNA is important because it:
a) Guarantees a win in negotiation
b) Provides a fallback option and strengthens one’s negotiating position
c) Is only relevant in litigation
d) Is irrelevant once the negotiation starts

104. Which of the following is a common strategy for effective ADR?
a) Maintaining a rigid stance and refusing to compromise
b) Encouraging open communication and active listening
c) Withholding all relevant information
d) Relying solely on written submissions

105. In ADR, the “zone of possible agreement (ZOPA)” refers to:
a) The area where no agreement is possible
b) The range in which an agreement is satisfactory to both parties
c) The jurisdiction in which the dispute is resolved
d) The period during which litigation is suspended

106. Which skill is most essential for a mediator during ADR sessions?
a) Authoritative decision-making
b) Impartial facilitation and active listening
c) Aggressive advocacy
d) Legal drafting skills only

107. One potential disadvantage of ADR is that it:
a) Always results in public disclosure of sensitive information
b) May lack enforceability if the settlement is not formalized
c) Is inherently more costly than litigation
d) Forces parties into unfavorable outcomes

108. In an ADR context, “settlement” typically means:
a) The process of initiating litigation
b) A mutual agreement reached by the parties resolving the dispute
c) A decision imposed by the mediator
d) The end of all legal proceedings regardless of outcome

109. Which of the following strategies can help avoid impasse in ADR negotiations?
a) Refusing to consider the other party’s interests
b) Identifying common interests and brainstorming creative solutions
c) Ignoring the possibility of compromise
d) Relying solely on rigid legal principles

110. The success of ADR often depends on:
a) The rigid adherence to adversarial tactics
b) The willingness of the parties to collaborate and communicate openly
c) The complete absence of any legal guidance
d) The unilateral decisions of one party

111. ADR has been widely promoted in the context of:
a) Criminal prosecutions
b) Family and matrimonial disputes
c) Constitutional challenges
d) All public policy disputes

112. In commercial disputes, the benefits of ADR include:
a) Lengthy procedures and high legal costs
b) Speed, confidentiality, and flexibility in resolution
c) Mandatory public trials
d) Inflexibility in terms of procedure

113. In labor disputes, ADR can be particularly useful because it:
a) Favors one party by default
b) Helps maintain ongoing industrial relations and avoids strikes
c) Is always imposed by the employer
d) Replaces all statutory labor laws

114. Which ADR process is often recommended for disputes in the construction industry?
a) Litigation exclusively
b) Arbitration, because it can handle technical issues efficiently
c) Mediation only
d) Public referendum

115. In international commercial disputes, ADR is favored due to:
a) Its inability to enforce awards internationally
b) Its flexibility and the availability of internationally recognized rules
c) Its mandatory public hearings
d) The absence of any neutrality

116. In environmental disputes, ADR is often employed because:
a) It imposes decisions without any input from the parties
b) It provides a forum for integrating scientific and community concerns
c) It strictly adheres to adversarial litigation principles
d) It delays necessary regulatory action

117. Which of the following sectors has increasingly adopted ADR mechanisms to resolve disputes efficiently?
a) Real estate and property disputes
b) Only criminal law
c) Military disputes
d) None of the above

118. In consumer disputes, ADR mechanisms are valued because they:
a) Are generally slow and expensive
b) Provide a quick and accessible means to resolve conflicts without lengthy litigation
c) Require formal court procedures
d) Do not involve any consumer protection laws

119. Which statement best reflects the use of ADR in family disputes?
a) ADR is rarely used due to the emotional nature of such disputes
b) ADR provides a confidential and less adversarial forum that can preserve family relationships
c) ADR is legally binding without any flexibility
d) ADR always leads to court proceedings in family matters

120. In disputes involving small businesses, ADR is often preferred because:
a) It is too formal and expensive
b) It minimizes costs and allows for creative, tailored solutions
c) It mandates a trial by jury
d) It is only available for larger corporations

121. Recent trends in ADR emphasize the use of technology through:
a) Traditional face-to-face meetings only
b) Online dispute resolution (ODR) platforms
c) Eliminating all written communication
d) Increased reliance on paper-based processes

122. Online Dispute Resolution (ODR) is particularly useful because it:
a) Restricts parties to in-person meetings
b) Offers a flexible, cost-effective solution, especially in cross-border disputes
c) Is always less efficient than traditional methods
d) Requires physical presence of all parties

123. A major challenge facing ADR today is:
a) The complete lack of any statutory framework
b) Ensuring enforceability and uniformity of awards across jurisdictions
c) Overwhelming transparency in all proceedings
d) Excessively long procedures compared to litigation

124. One of the criticisms regarding ADR processes is that they may:
a) Always lead to a fair outcome for all parties
b) Lack the rigor and safeguards of traditional judicial systems
c) Provide too much public scrutiny
d) Force parties into adversarial roles

125. Recent reforms in ADR legislation in India have aimed to:
a) Limit the scope of ADR to only commercial disputes
b) Strengthen the enforceability and clarity of arbitration and conciliation procedures
c) Eliminate the use of mediators
d) Increase the cost and duration of ADR proceedings

126. Which of the following is a focus area for improving ADR practices globally?
a) Enhancing transparency and accountability while preserving confidentiality
b) Mandating public disclosure of all ADR sessions
c) Abolishing party autonomy
d) Increasing formality to mimic court proceedings

127. The integration of ADR processes in judicial systems is often referred to as:
a) Court-annexed ADR
b) Independent litigation
c) Judicial overreach
d) Protracted litigation

128. Which factor has driven the increased adoption of ADR mechanisms worldwide?
a) The universal decline in litigation costs
b) The need to alleviate overburdened court dockets and reduce delays
c) The elimination of alternative dispute channels
d) The mandatory imposition of arbitration in all disputes

129. In the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic, ADR practitioners have increasingly turned to:
a) In-person meetings exclusively
b) Virtual platforms and online negotiations
c) Delaying all dispute resolution efforts
d) Only formal court procedures

130. The role of technology in ADR is expected to:
a) Replace the need for any human intervention
b) Enhance access, efficiency, and flexibility in dispute resolution
c) Complicate the resolution process beyond practicality
d) Render traditional ADR methods obsolete overnight

131. An ethical principle important for ADR practitioners is:
a) Partiality toward the stronger party
b) Impartiality and neutrality
c) Enforcing personal opinions in the outcome
d) Withholding relevant information intentionally

132. Confidentiality in ADR is important because it:
a) Prevents parties from ever sharing settlement details
b) Protects sensitive information and encourages candid discussion
c) Is mandated by all statutory laws without exception
d) Is not recognized in any ADR process

133. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of “informed consent” in ADR?
a) Parties being forced into mediation without prior notice
b) Parties voluntarily agreeing to participate in ADR after understanding the process and its implications
c) Parties agreeing to arbitration without any legal advice
d) Parties being unaware of the mediator’s role

134. The neutrality of an ADR practitioner can be compromised if:
a) They disclose information about the dispute
b) They maintain complete impartiality
c) They refuse to communicate with both parties
d) They adhere strictly to the agreed procedures

135. In ADR, fairness is achieved by:
a) Allowing one party to dominate the process
b) Ensuring that both parties have equal opportunity to present their case
c) Ignoring the weaker party’s concerns
d) Relying solely on the mediator’s discretion

136. In an ADR process, if a mediator suggests a solution that one party rejects, the mediator should:
a) Impose the solution on both parties
b) Facilitate further discussion and explore alternative solutions
c) End the mediation immediately
d) Switch to arbitration without consulting the parties

137. When parties agree to submit their dispute to arbitration, they are:
a) Waiving all rights to any court proceedings on the matter
b) Indicating that the arbitrator’s decision will be advisory only
c) Allowing the arbitrator to suggest non-binding recommendations
d) Committing to a process with no possibility of appeal

138. In a multi-party dispute resolution via ADR, the key challenge often encountered is:
a) Too few opinions complicating the resolution
b) Managing diverse interests and ensuring equal participation
c) Lack of any procedural rules
d) The absence of any neutral facilitator

139. The effectiveness of ADR in resolving disputes largely depends on:
a) The strict enforcement of adversarial tactics
b) The willingness of the parties to engage in open dialogue and compromise
c) The complexity of the legal issues
d) The number of arbitrators involved

140. A written settlement agreement reached through ADR becomes enforceable when:
a) It is only agreed upon verbally
b) It is memorialized in writing and accepted by both parties, often with court endorsement if required
c) It is kept confidential and unrecorded
d) It is drafted solely by one party’s legal counsel

141. In a scenario where two business partners have a disagreement, which ADR method is most appropriate for preserving the ongoing relationship?
a) Litigation
b) Mediation
c) Arbitrary judgment
d) Court-appointed trusteeship

142. If parties in an ADR process have significant power imbalances, what measure is most appropriate?
a) Proceed without any modifications
b) Use a neutral third party with expertise in handling power imbalances
c) Allow the dominant party to decide the outcome
d) Skip the ADR process entirely

143. In cross-border disputes, ADR is often favored because:
a) National courts are always faster
b) ADR provides a neutral forum and can overcome jurisdictional challenges
c) ADR is less binding than court decisions
d) It eliminates all legal complexities

144. In a case where the parties have already undergone unsuccessful negotiation, the next step in ADR might be:
a) Immediate litigation
b) Mediation or conciliation to re-open communication
c) Dismissing all dispute resolution efforts
d) Accepting the initial failed proposal

145. When drafting an arbitration clause in a contract, it is important to include:
a) Vague language to allow flexibility
b) Clear terms regarding the scope, seat, and rules of arbitration
c) A clause that permits either party to bypass arbitration
d) No details regarding the procedure

146. In a mediation session, if one party begins to dominate the conversation, the mediator should:
a) Let the conversation continue without intervention
b) Intervene to ensure balanced participation and allow the quieter party to speak
c) Side with the more dominant party
d) Immediately end the session

147. A common reason for parties to opt for ADR rather than litigation is:
a) A desire for public exposure of the dispute
b) The need for a swift and private resolution
c) The requirement for extensive evidence disclosure
d) To set a legal precedent

148. In ADR, a “procedural contract” is:
a) An agreement on the substantive issues of the dispute
b) An agreement on how the ADR process will be conducted
c) A contract that replaces all legal obligations
d) Irrelevant to the ADR process

149. Which of the following is an example of an ADR outcome that is typically non-binding unless formalized?
a) A court decree
b) A mediated settlement reached orally
c) An arbitral award
d) A statutory judgment

150. In an ADR process, the success of resolving a dispute ultimately depends on:
a) The formality of the procedure
b) The active participation, good faith, and willingness of the parties to compromise
c) The dominance of one party over the other
d) The rigid enforcement of rules irrespective of the context

151. Which of the following is a primary objective of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act?
A) Mandating litigation over arbitration
B) Encouraging alternative dispute resolution
C) Discouraging settlements
D) None of the above

152. Who can appoint an arbitrator under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act?
A) Only the court
B) Only one party in dispute
C) Both parties to the dispute by mutual consent
D) Arbitrators are self-appointed

153. The seat of arbitration determines:
A) The nationality of the arbitrator
B) The procedural law governing the arbitration
C) The language of the arbitration proceedings
D) The subject matter of the dispute

154. What grounds can an arbitral award be challenged on?
A) Disagreement between parties
B) The arbitrator’s personal opinions
C) Violation of public policy or procedural irregularities
D) Failure to reach a unanimous decision

155. What principle empowers arbitrators to decide on their own jurisdiction?
A) Autonomy of the arbitration agreement
B) Separability of the arbitration clause
C) Kompetenz-kompetenz
D) Judicial intervention

156. What distinguishes arbitration from conciliation?
A) Arbitration involves a neutral party making a binding decision, while conciliation involves voluntary settlement facilitation
B) Conciliation involves a judge’s intervention, while arbitration doesn’t
C) Arbitration is a more time-consuming process than conciliation
D) Conciliation is a legally binding process, while arbitration is not

157. Which entity governs the Arbitration and Conciliation Act in India?
A) Ministry of Justice
B) Supreme Court of India
C) Law Commission of India
D) Parliament

158. What is the maximum number of arbitrators that can be appointed according to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act?
A) Three
B) Five
C) Seven
D) There is no specified limit

159. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a valid arbitration agreement?
A) It must be in writing
B) It must be signed by both parties
C) It must include an exact resolution for the dispute
D) It must deal with a present or future dispute

160. In which year was the Arbitration and Conciliation Act enacted in India?
A) 1991
B) 1996
C) 2000
D) 2005

161. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, who has the power to grant interim measures?
A) Only the arbitrator
B) Only the court
C) Both the arbitrator and the court
D) Only the government

162. What does the term “ad hoc arbitration” refer to?
A) Arbitration conducted by an administrative body
B) Arbitration conducted without institutional rules
C) Arbitration conducted only in domestic disputes
D) Arbitration conducted by the government

163. What is the significance of the New York Convention in the context of arbitration?
A) It governs international trade laws
B) It sets guidelines for domestic arbitration
C) It facilitates the recognition and enforcement of arbitral awards internationally
D) It is related to conciliation proceedings

164. In case of a conflict between the Arbitration and Conciliation Act and any other law, which law prevails?
A) Arbitration and Conciliation Act
B) Other law
C) The law of the country where arbitration is conducted
D) The law chosen by the arbitrators

165. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the enforcement of foreign awards in India?
A) Section 44
B) Section 48
C) Section 54
D) Section 62

166. What is the time limit to challenge an arbitral award in India under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act?
A) 30 days
B) 60 days
C) 90 days
D) 120 days

167. Which of the following is NOT a ground for setting aside an arbitral award under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act?
A) Lack of jurisdiction
B) Incorrect decision by the arbitrator
C) Procedural irregularity
D) Contrary to public policy

168. Who can challenge the appointment of an arbitrator under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act?
A) Any party to the arbitration agreement
B) Only the respondent in the dispute
C) Only the petitioner in the dispute
D) Only the court

169. In India, which court has jurisdiction over matters related to arbitration and conciliation under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act?
A) High Court
B) District Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Arbitration Tribunal

170. What does the term “arbitrable dispute” mean?
A) A dispute that can only be settled through arbitration
B) A dispute that cannot be settled through arbitration
C) A dispute that involves a third party
D) A dispute that can be settled through arbitration as per law

171. What role does the UNCITRAL Model Law play in arbitration?
A) It sets guidelines for domestic arbitration
B) It harmonizes international arbitration laws
C) It focuses on conciliation procedures
D) It defines the qualifications for arbitrators

172. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, what is the time limit for rendering an arbitral award?
A) 6 months
B) 9 months
C) 12 months
D) 18 months

173. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the appointment of arbitrators in case of failure of appointment procedure?
A) Section 11
B) Section 15
C) Section 29A
D) Section 34

174. What is the term used for a situation where an arbitrator is unable to perform their functions under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act?
A) Disqualification
B) Incapacity
C) Recusal
D) Incompatibility

175. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the competence of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act in India?
A) It applies only to commercial disputes
B) It applies to both domestic and international disputes
C) It applies only to disputes between companies and individuals
D) It applies to criminal disputes

176. What is the principle of “party autonomy” in arbitration?
A) Parties have the freedom to choose the arbitrator’s nationality
B) Parties have the freedom to decide the applicable law and procedure
C) Parties have the freedom to ignore the arbitration agreement
D) Parties have the freedom to delay the arbitration proceedings

177. In the context of arbitration, what does the term “ex aequo et bono” mean?
A) Based on the terms of the contract
B) Based on the law of equity
C) Based on mutual consent
D) Based on fairness and good conscience

178. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of arbitration over litigation?
A) Confidentiality
B) Speedy resolution
C) Lack of enforceability
D) Flexibility in procedure

179. What is the primary role of the International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution (ICADR)?
A) Promoting mediation in international disputes
B) Providing training and research in alternative dispute resolution
C) Resolving disputes between countries
D) Publishing guidelines for arbitration

180. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act governs the definition and form of an arbitration agreement?
A) Section 7
B) Section 10
C) Section 17
D) Section 21

181. What is the term for an agreement to submit disputes to arbitration after the dispute has arisen?
A) Pre-dispute arbitration clause
B) Post-dispute arbitration clause
C) Bilateral arbitration agreement
D) Unilateral arbitration agreement

182. Which authority has the power to issue interim measures in arbitration under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act?
A) Arbitration Tribunal
B) High Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Only the government

183. What is the doctrine that prevents parties from re-litigating matters already settled by arbitration called?
A) Res judicata
B) Forum non conveniens
C) Stare decisis
D) Laches

184. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, what is the time limit for making an application for setting aside an arbitral award?
A) 60 days
B) 90 days
C) 120 days
D) 180 days

185. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the confidentiality of arbitral proceedings?
A) Section 28
B) Section 32
C) Section 44
D) Section 58

186. What is the term used to describe the process where parties in dispute request a third party to assist in the resolution of their dispute without rendering a decision?
A) Arbitration
B) Mediation
C) Adjudication
D) Conciliation

187. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for an arbitration agreement to be valid under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act?
A) It must be in writing
B) It must be signed by both parties
C) It must be notarized
D) It must contain the subject matter of the dispute

188. What is the term for the decision made by an arbitrator at the end of an arbitration process?
A) Judgment
B) Verdict
C) Award
D) Ruling

189. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act empowers the tribunal to order the enforcement of interim measures?
A) Section 17
B) Section 28
C) Section 17(2)
D) Section 37

190. What is the term used for an agreement to refer a present dispute to arbitration?
A) Pre-dispute arbitration clause
B) Post-dispute arbitration clause
C) Bilateral arbitration agreement
D) Unilateral arbitration agreement

191. In arbitration, what is the role of an amicus curiae?
A) An expert witness appointed by the court
B) A neutral third party appointed by both parties
C) A friend of the court who provides expertise or advice
D) A mediator facilitating communication between parties

192. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, who bears the burden of proof in arbitration proceedings?
A) Only the claimant
B) Only the respondent
C) Both parties equally
D) As per the discretion of the arbitrator

193. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the grounds for challenging an arbitrator’s impartiality?
A) Section 13
B) Section 22
C) Section 30
D) Section 51

194. What is the term used for a situation where an arbitrator resigns or is removed during the arbitration process?
A) Substitution
B) Abatement
C) Vacancy
D) Recusal

195. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act defines the power of an arbitrator to grant interim measures?
A) Section 9
B) Section 17
C) Section 29
D) Section 37

196. What is the term used for an arbitration conducted by an institution that administers the arbitration process?
A) Institutional arbitration
B) Ad hoc arbitration
C) Uncodified arbitration
D) Non-institutional arbitration

197. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, what is the time limit for submitting statements of claim and defense in arbitration?
A) 30 days
B) 60 days
C) 90 days
D) 120 days

198. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the recognition and enforcement of foreign awards?
A) Section 45
B) Section 49
C) Section 53
D) Section 61

199. In arbitration, what does the term “seat” refer to?
A) The physical location where the arbitration hearings are held
B) The decision of the arbitrator
C) The language used during the arbitration process
D) The authority of the arbitrator

200. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act empowers the tribunal to award interest on the principal amount in dispute?
A) Section 31
B) Section 34
C) Section 37
D) Section 31A

201. What is the term used for an agreement that limits the time within which a party can make a claim?
A) Limitation clause
B) Arbitration clause
C) Time-bar clause
D) Exclusion clause

202. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, which entity has the power to determine the jurisdiction of the arbitral tribunal?
A) High Court
B) Supreme Court
C) Arbitral Tribunal
D) Law Commission of India

203. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the assistance of the court in taking evidence in arbitration proceedings?
A) Section 19
B) Section 24
C) Section 27
D) Section 32

204. What is the term used for a written record of the arbitral proceedings?
A) Minutes of the meeting
B) Arbitration report
C) Statement of claim
D) Award

205. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, who has the power to appoint a substitute arbitrator if an arbitrator withdraws from the proceedings?
A) High Court
B) Supreme Court
C) Arbitration Tribunal
D) The withdrawing arbitrator

206. What is the term used for a situation where the parties mutually agree to terminate the arbitration proceedings?
A) Abandonment
B) Termination
C) Settlement
D) Discontinuation

207. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the extension of the time limit for making an arbitral award?
A) Section 28
B) Section 32
C) Section 34
D) Section 38

208. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, what is the time limit for an arbitral tribunal to render a final award after completion of the hearings?
A) 6 months
B) 9 months
C) 12 months
D) 18 months

209. What is the term used for an agreement between parties to submit their disputes to an expert who renders an opinion on the issue?
A) Mediation
B) Adjudication
C) Expert determination
D) Conciliation

210. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, which entity has the power to grant interim measures before the commencement of arbitration proceedings?
A) High Court
B) Supreme Court
C) Arbitration Tribunal
D) Law Commission of India

211. What is the term used for the authority of an arbitrator to decide the scope of their own jurisdiction?
A) Kompetenz-kompetenz
B) Jurisdictional prerogative
C) Arbitral sovereignty
D) Tribunal autonomy

212. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, which section deals with the termination of the arbitral proceedings?
A) Section 30
B) Section 33
C) Section 38
D) Section 41

213. What is the term used for the principle where an arbitrator applies legal rules and principles to the dispute?
A) Ex aequo et bono
B) Lex fori
C) Lex mercatoria
D) Lex arbitri

214. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, who bears the costs of arbitration?
A) Only the claimant
B) Only the respondent
C) Both parties equally
D) As per the discretion of the arbitrator

215. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the language of the arbitration proceedings?
A) Section 26
B) Section 30
C) Section 33
D) Section 40

216. What is the term used for the situation where an arbitrator has a personal interest in the outcome of the arbitration?
A) Partiality
B) Bias
C) Conflict of interest
D) Impartiality

217. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, who has the power to determine the procedure to be followed in the arbitration proceedings?
A) Arbitration Tribunal
B) High Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Government-appointed arbitrator

218. What is the term used for an agreement where the parties agree to settle their disputes through arbitration after a dispute has arisen?
A) Pre-dispute arbitration clause
B) Post-dispute arbitration clause
C) Bilateral arbitration agreement
D) Unilateral arbitration agreement

219. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, who has the power to make orders for the appearance of witnesses or the production of documents?
A) Arbitration Tribunal
B) High Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Government-appointed arbitrator

220. What is the term used for an agreement between parties to resolve their disputes through an expert’s determination, whose decision is binding?
A) Expert determination
B) Mediation
C) Conciliation
D) Adjudication

221. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, what is the time limit for making an application for setting aside an arbitral award?
A) 60 days
B) 90 days
C) 120 days
D) 180 days

222. Which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with the form and content of the arbitral award?
A) Section 31
B) Section 34
C) Section 38
D) Section 41

223. Which one of the following is not part of the four correct methods of ADR?
A. Legislation
B. Mediation
C. Conciliation
D. Negotiation
E. Arbitration

224. What are the need of ADR?
A) Amicable and economical settlement of disputes
B) Time saving management
C) Speedy disposal of dispute
D) All of the above

225. Which of the following is essential ingredients of a valid arbitration agreement?
A) It must be orally
B) There must be agreement between the parties
C) There is no need of agreement between the parties
D) None of the above

226. —– of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with the jurisdiction of arbitral tribunals.
A) Chapter VI
B) Chapter V
C) Chapter IV
D) Chapter III

227. Which of the following is not type of conciliation?
A) Voluntary
B) Contractual
C) Compulsory
D) All of the above

228. What are the duties of the conciliator?
A) Administrative assistance
B) Disclosure of information
C) Settlement agreement
D) All of the above

229. Stages of negotiations
A) Preparation
B) Opening
C) Bargaining
D) All of the above

230. Lok Adalat introduced in
A) 1982
B) 1984
C) 1986
D) None of the above

231. Award of Lok Adalat –
A) Final
B) Not binding on the parties
C) Final and binding on the parties
D) All of the above

232. Which are the correct methods of ADR?
A. Legislation, Arbitration and Negotiation
B. Negotiation, Legislation and Mediation
C. Arbitration, Negotiation, Conciliation and Mediation
D. Legislation and Mediation

233. A conciliator is appointed
A. By the parties to the dispute
B. By the Chief Justice of the High Court
C. By the Civil Court
D. None of the above

234. The mediator is
A. Judge
B. Advisor
C. Expert
D. Facilitator

235. Committee for implementing Legal Aid Schemes (CILAS 1980) is replaced by
A. State Legal Service Authority
B. District Legal Service Authority
C. National Legal Service Authority
D. None of the above

236. Negotiation is a procedure
A. Binding procedure
B. Non-binding procedure
C. Prospective binding
D. Retrospective binding

237. Lok Adalat basically means
A. Women’s court
B. Men’s court
C. People’s court
D. Children court

238. The award made by the Lok Adalat
A. is deemed to be a decree of the civil court like arbitration award
B. is deemed to be a decree of the civil court
C. is effective as an arbitral award
D. is not binding on the party

239. During conciliation proceeding, a party to the dispute shall not initiate any judicial proceeding except
A. With the permission of the Conciliator
B. For preserving his rights
C. With the permission of the Court
D. With the consent of the other party

240. Which type of cases are not dealt by Lok Adalat?
A. Compoundable criminal offences
B. Family disputes
C. Non-compoundable criminal offences
D. Motor accident claims

241. __________ and __________ are regarded as equivalent terms referring to essentially the same kind of third party intervention in promoting voluntary settlement of disputes.
A. Mediation and Conciliation
B. Conciliation and Arbitration
C. Mediation and Court of Enquiry
D. None of the above

242. Which of the settlement machinery implies a stronger form of intervention and a mediator may be permitted to offer to the parties proposals for settlement?
A. Conciliation
B. Adjudication
C. Arbitration
D. Mediation
E. Court of enquiry

243. The mediator has been described as a confidential _________ and an industrial diplomat.
A. Peace-maker
B. Messenger
C. Adviser
D. None of the above

244. _________ can be described as the practice by which the services of a neutral third-party are used in a dispute as a means of helping the disputing parties to reduce the extent of their differences and to arrive at an amicable settlement.
A. Arbitration
B. Mediation
C. Adjudication
D. Conciliation

245. Which are the two methods on which a conciliator relies on to resolve the disputes between two parties?
A. Cognition and Influence
B. Reasoning and Persuasion
C. Rationale and Coaxing
D. Motivation and Leadership

246. Which are the unique and essential characteristics of the conciliation process?
A. Flexibility, informality and simplicity
B. Blase, clumsy and decisive
C. Candid, conceited and dismayed
D. Fierce, intrepid and meticulous

247. Which of these is one of the phases in the sequence of the conciliation process?
A. Emergency of appropriate mood for settlement of compromise
B. The hard posture phase
C. Outlet for feelings
a. Only A & C
b. Only B
c. Only A & B
d. Only B & C