300+ MCQ Question Bank on Administrative Law

1. Administrative law is a law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action’. This definition is given by
a)  Ivor Jennings
b) K C Davis
c) H WR Wade
d) Cessare Becarria

2. Which of the following is FALSE statement?
a)  the primary function of administrative law is to restrict the governmental powers
b) the administrative law seeks to protect private interest and rights from encroachment of State
c) Administrative law governs relation between Government and citizens
d) Administrative law is the law concerning organisation and functions of government at rest

3. Which of the following is not the meaning of ‘Rule of law’ according to A V Dicey
a)  Supremacy of law
b) Equality before law
c) Pre-dominance of legal spirit
d) Wide discretionary powers

4. A V Dicey criticized which legal system?
a)  French legal system
b) English legal system
c) Australian legal system
d) American legal system

5. Which one of the following is NOT the drawback concept of Rule of Law as given by A V Dicey
a)  Failure to distinguish between arbitrary power discretionary power
b) Misunderstood the real nature of droit administrative
c) Did not recognise the existence of Administrative law in England
d) did not support supremacy of law

6. ……………… is considered to be the doctrinal barrier for development of Administrative law in USA
a)  Rule Of Law
b) Separation Of Powers
c) Doctrine Of Pleasure
d) Henry VIII clause

7. The doctrine of Separation Of Power was systematically propounded by
a)  Montesquieu in his book The Spirit of Laws
b) Plato in his book The Social Contract
c) Aristotle in his book The Spirit of Laws
d) Montesquieu in his book The Constitution

8. Doctrine of separation of powers means
a)  one organ of the government should not exercise the function of the other
b) one organ of the government should not control or interfere with the exercise of its functions by another organ
c) same persons should not form part of more than one of the three organs of the government
d) all of the above

9. The functions of the executive can be classified as
a)  Delegated legislation
b) Quasi judicial function
c) Discretionary functions
d) All of the above

10. Which of the following is true?
a)  The legislative order has to be published
b) For Quasi judicial decisions reasons may not be given
c) The duty to give reasons applies to legislative orders
d) the administrative powers cannot be sub delegated

11. Which of the following is not held to be a quasi-judicial function
a)  Determination of citizenship
b) Disciplinary proceedings against students
c) Determination of disqualification of members of parliament
d) An order of preventive detention

12. The delegated legislation means ……………. Which of the following is false?
a)  the exercise by subordinate agency of legislative power delegated to it
b) The subsidiary rules made by the subordinate authorities in persons of the power conferred
c) The power of Central Government to make rules and regulations authorised by the parent act
d) The amendment made to the Act to suit the changing conditions

13. ‘Delegatus non protest delgare’ means
a)  The delegate not protest against the authority
b) The delegate does not have potential for making laws
c) The delegate cannot further delegate
d) The delegate can further delegate

14. The principle that by exercising the power of modification the delegate cannot change the legislative policy was developed in the case of
a)  R v Burah
b) Delhi Laws Act 1912, Re AIR 1951 SC
c) Ram jawaya Kapur v State of Punjab 1955 SC
d) None of the above

15. Which of the functions may not be delegated
a)  Essential legislative functions
b) Inclusion and exclusion
c) Application of existing laws
d) Commencement

16. Which of the following functions are permissible delegations
a)  Future Acts
b) Imposition of tax
c) Supplying of details
d) Ouster of jurisdiction of Court

17. Which of the following is correct definition of ‘Audi alteram partem’?
a)  Listening to the appeal
b) Right of fair hearing
c) Right to know reasons of decision
d) All of the above

18. Which of the following is/are the requisite conditions for a contract made in the exercise of executive power of the centre?
a)  The contract must be expressed to be made by the president
b) The contract is to be executed in such manner and by such person as the President may direct
c) The contract must be entered on behalf of the President
d) All of the above

19. Which of the following is true when a government contract which does not conform to the provisions of Art 299 of the Constitution?
a)  the contract is not enforceable in Court against the parties
b) the contract is voidable at the option of both the parties
c) the contract is void
d) none of the above

20. Which of the following is write definition of the phrase Nemo judex in causa sua
a)  no man is capable of rendering judgement on himself
b) no man shall be a judge in his own cause
c) no man can punish himself
d) proper justice can be done if the judge is related to the party

21. Which of the following is not a control on delegated legislation
a)  Judicial
b) Legislative
c) Doctrine of ultra vires
d) Doctrine of lifting of veil

22. Which of the following is not the ground of procedural ultra vires
a)  Non Publication of rules
b) No consultation
c) Sub delegation
d) None of the above

23. Which of the following is NOT the ground for substantive ultra vires?
a)  Where parent Act is unconstitutional
b) Where parent act delegates essential legislative functions
c) Where delegated legislation is arbitrary
d) where mandatory consultation process is not complied with

24. Principles of natural justice are NOT applicable against which of the following actions?
a)  Administrative actions
b) Rule making action
c) Quasi judicial actions
d) Judicial process

25. ‘Principles of natural justice are applicable even when the statute is silent …….they do not supplant law of the land but supplement it’. this was held in which case?
a)  A K Kraipak v Union of India
b) M C Mehta v Union of India
c) A K Gopalan v Union of India
d) None of the above

26. Which of the following is NOT a type of bias
a)  Pecuniary bias
b) Personal bias
c) Judicial obstinacy
d) None of the above

27. Which of the following is NOT an essential component of the doctrine of Audi alteram partem?
a)  Right of notice
b) Oral hearing
c) Reasoned decision
d) Both A and B

28. When personal hearing is given by one officer and order is passed by another officer, which of the following principle/s of natural justice is/are violated
a)  Rule against bias
b) Right to hearing
c) Reasoned decision
d) all of the above

29. The Administrative tribunal have been recognised under which of the following articles of the constitution
a)  Art 136 and Art 227
b) Art 323 A and 323 B
c) all of the above
d) Art 32

30. Which of the following statements is true?
a)  All Courts are tribunals but all tribunals are not Courts
b) Tribunals are not bound by the decisions of Supreme Court
c) A tribunal is established by government
d) Tribunals are not bound by principles of natural justice

31. Acting under dictation, non-application of mind, imposing fetters on discretion, sub delegation are examples of which of the following
a)  Excess or abuse of discretion
b) Failure to exercise discretion
c) Order based on mixed consideration
d) None of the above

32. Excess or abuse of discretion can be through which of the following grounds
a)  Living out relevant consideration
b) Arbitrary action
c) Exceeding jurisdiction
d) All of the above

33. The case of Air India v Nergesh Meerza relating to termination of service on ground of first pregnancy is a classic example of ……
a)  Acting under dictation
b) Unreasonableness
c) Excess of jurisdiction
d) Non observance of principles of natural justice

34. Which of the following is NOT an essential to issue writ of mandamus
a)  Legal duty of authority
b) Refusal to do the duty
c) Legal right of the petitioner
d) It lies against private individual

35. When the court finds that the order is suffering from error apparent on face of the record, which of the following writs can be issued?
a)  Writ Of Habeas Corpus
b) Writ Of Mandamus
c) Writ Of Certiorari
d) Writ Of Quo Warranto

36. The institution of ombudsman originated in 1809 at
a)  France
b) Sweden
c) Germany
d) Australia

37. The tortious liability of the government is recognised in the Indian constitution by
a)  Art 298
b) Art 294
c) Art 323
d) Art 299

38. The tortious liability of the State was NOT recognised in which of the following cases?
a)  State of Rajasthan vs Vidyawati
b) Kasturi Lal vs State of Uttar Pradesh
c) State of Gujarat vs Memon Mohammed Haji
d) Railway Board vs Chandrima Das

39. The public corporation can be held liable under which of the following the liability/ies?
a)  Liability in contracts
b) Liability in torts
c) Liability for crimes
d) All of the above

40. Which of the following statements are false?

1. The Public Corporation can be sued in the court of law
2. Public Corporation is not ‘State’ under Art 12
3. The doctrine of ultra vires is applicable to public corporations
4. Servants of the government company are civil servants under article 311 of the constitution?
   a)  1, 4 are false
   b) 2 and 4 are false
   c) 2 and 3 are false
   d) None of the above

41. Which of the following is the primary function of administrative law?
a)  To regulate criminal law
b) To enforce public law
c) To regulate administrative agencies’ powers and duties
d) To make laws

42. Which of the following is true about Administrative Discretion?
a)  It is always exercised judicially
b) It is the exercise of power by administrative authorities within legal boundaries
c) It must be exercised without any limitations
d) It is an ultra vires power

43. Delegated legislation refers to:
a)  Laws made by the executive, under powers conferred by the legislature
b) Laws enacted by judicial decisions
c) Laws made by local bodies
d) Laws made by the President

44. Which of the following is an example of delegated legislation?
a)  A law passed by Parliament
b) A notification issued by a Ministry under the authority of an Act of Parliament
c) A Supreme Court judgment
d) A directive issued by the Prime Minister

45. Judicial review is:
a)  A power to amend laws
b) A power to examine the legality of administrative actions
c) A power to create laws
d) A power exclusive to the legislative body

46. Which of the following cases is associated with the concept of judicial review in administrative law?
a)  Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
c) Marbury v. Madison
d) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India

47. The concept of Rule of Law was popularized by:
a)  Montesquieu
b) John Locke
c) A.V. Dicey
d) Karl Marx

48. The Rule of Law principle means:
a)  Law is supreme and applies equally to all
b) Laws can be made by the executive
c) The judiciary has unlimited powers
d) The legislature can overrule the judiciary

49. The principle of natural justice includes which of the following?
a)  Right to appeal
b) Right to a fair hearing
c) Right to make laws
d) Right to public property

50. Which of the following is a maxim associated with natural justice?
a)  Nemo judex in causa sua
b) Audi alteram partem
c) Actus reus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
d) Nulla poena sine lege

51. Administrative Tribunals in India are established under:
a)  The Constitution of India
b) The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
c) The Indian Penal Code
d) The Supreme Court Rules

52. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985?
a)  It provides for the creation of specialized courts for administrative disputes
b) It allows the judiciary to intervene in administrative disputes
c) It only applies to the central government employees
d) It prohibits the formation of any tribunals

53. The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in India by:
a)  Justice P.N. Bhagwati
b) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
c) Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah
d) Justice R.S. Pathak

54. Which of the following is a characteristic of Public Interest Litigation?
a)  It can only be filed by the affected parties
b) It is meant to protect public interest
c) It is a private law remedy
d) It is confined to matters of property disputes

55. Administrative accountability refers to:
a)  Holding administrative bodies responsible for their actions
b) The process of making laws
c) The judiciary exercising powers over the legislature
d) Ensuring administrative agencies’ policies are implemented correctly

56. Which of the following is a mechanism for ensuring administrative accountability?
a)  Judicial review
b) Legislative control
c) Ombudsman
d) All of the above

57. Which of the following is a method of legislative control over the executive?
a)  Delegated legislation
b) Judicial review
c) Question hour and debates
d) Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

58. The power to make rules and regulations under delegated legislation is derived from:
a)  The Parliament
b) The Constitution of India
c) A statute passed by the legislature
d) Executive orders

59. The institution of the Ombudsman is known as:
a)  Lok Sabha
b) Lokayukta
c) Parliamentary Committee
d) Election Commission

60. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Ombudsman in India?
a)  Investigating administrative malpractice
b) Protecting public interest
c) Making laws
d) Recommending actions to improve governance

61. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India first recognize the concept of judicial review in administrative law?
a)  Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
c) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
d) Marbury v. Madison

62. The doctrine of “Separation of Powers” in administrative law suggests that:
a)  The executive, judiciary, and legislature should perform their duties without interference
b) The judiciary has powers to enact laws
c) The executive can make laws
d) The judiciary can control executive orders

63. The writ of “Certiorari” can be issued to:
a)  Prevent an administrative authority from acting beyond its jurisdiction
b) Correct errors of law or jurisdiction by a lower court or tribunal
c) Protect the life and personal liberty of individuals
d) Direct a public authority to do something required by law

64. Which of the following writs is issued to command a lower court or tribunal to produce a record of the case for judicial review?
a)  Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Certiorari
d) Quo Warranto

65. Which of the following is the primary function of public administration?
a)  To execute laws and implement policies
b) To adjudicate disputes
c) To make laws
d) To legislate on fiscal matters

66. Administrative law regulates:
a)  The relations between the legislature and the executive
b) The functioning of the judiciary
c) The powers of administrative agencies
d) The fundamental rights of citizens

67. The term “prerogative powers” refers to:
a)  Powers given to the executive by the legislature
b) Exclusive powers of the executive to act without legislative consent
c) Powers derived from the judiciary
d) Powers exercised by local bodies

68. In the context of prerogative powers, which of the following is an example?
a)  The President issuing ordinances
b) Parliament making laws
c) The judiciary reviewing laws
d) The executive preparing the budget

69. Which of the following best describes the term “administrative procedure”?
a)  The formal process of enacting laws
b) The process through which administrative bodies make and enforce regulations
c) The judicial process of settling disputes
d) The methods employed by the executive to make decisions in courts

70. Administrative procedures are governed by:
a)  The Constitution
b) Rules of Business and Administrative Tribunals
c) Fundamental Rights
d) Parliamentary laws only

71. The Constitution of India provides for the establishment of administrative tribunals under:
a)  Article 323A
b) Article 51A
c) Article 226
d) Article 356

72. Which of the following is true about the scope of judicial review under the Indian Constitution?
a)  It applies only to legislative actions
b) It is available for administrative decisions affecting individual rights
c) It is restricted to cases of violation of fundamental rights
d) It is exercised exclusively by the Parliament

73. Which of the following is an internal control mechanism for ensuring accountability in administrative law?
a)  Judicial review
b) Ombudsman
c) Administrative tribunals
d) Internal audit

74. Which of the following is an example of external control over administrative agencies?
a)  Cabinet orders
b) Financial regulations by the Comptroller and Auditor General
c) Ministerial decisions
d) Internal investigations

75. The Right to Information Act was enacted in India in:
a)  2002
b) 2005
c) 2010
d) 2012

76. Under the Right to Information Act, information can be sought from:
a)  Only government ministries
b) Only public authorities
c) Only legislative bodies
d) Any private individual

77. Which of the following is a method for controlling executive action in India?
a)  Judicial review
b) Executive decrees
c) Presidential ordinances
d) Ministerial orders

78. The scope of judicial review in India includes:
a)  Review of executive orders
b) Review of legislative procedures
c) Review of constitutional amendments
d) Review of judicial decisions only

79. Administrative law in the context of public policy relates to:
a)  Laws regarding public elections
b) Administrative bodies’ authority to shape policies
c) The judiciary’s control over the executive
d) Judicial review of legislative actions

80. Public policy refers to:
a)  Policies made by the legislature only
b) Government decisions that affect the welfare of the public
c) Judicial decisions in the public interest
d) Laws passed by local bodies

81. Administrative tribunals are established under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
a)  Article 323A
b) Article 323B
c) Article 12
d) Article 36

82. What is the primary purpose of administrative tribunals?
a)  To provide judicial review
b) To handle matters related to administrative decisions and disputes
c) To create laws
d) To regulate elections

83. Which of the following is an example of delegated legislation?
a)  Acts of Parliament
b) Rules made by the executive under a legislative act
c) Judicial decisions
d) Orders of the Supreme Court

84. Delegated legislation is also known as:
a)  Subordinate legislation
b) Parliamentary law
c) Fundamental legislation
d) Constitutional law

85. Excessive delegation refers to:
a)  Delegating power beyond what is specified by the parent legislation
b) Delegating powers to judicial bodies
c) The enactment of laws by the legislature
d) Delegating executive functions to public authorities

86. Which of the following is the principle that prevents excessive delegation?
a)  Delegated powers must be exercised according to legislative intent
b) Executive orders have unlimited power
c) All powers should be vested in the Parliament
d) Delegation is only allowed for judicial functions

87. The doctrine of “Judicial Review” is applied in administrative law primarily to:
a)  Make laws
b) Review the constitutionality of administrative actions
c) Examine the social impact of laws
d) Review legislative actions only

88. Which writ can be used by the judiciary to examine the legality of a decision or order made by an administrative authority?
a)  Habeas Corpus
b) Certiorari
c) Quo Warranto
d) Mandamus

89. The Right to Information Act, 2005, ensures:
a)  A citizen’s right to be informed about matters of governance
b) The protection of government secrets
c) The right of the government to withhold all information
d) A citizen’s right to demand government funding

90. Which of the following is excluded from the purview of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
a)  Documents related to corruption
b) Documents related to national security
c) Documents related to public works
d) Documents related to personal information of public servants

91. The principle of “Audi Alteram Partem” is based on:
a)  Right to a fair hearing
b) Right to privacy
c) Right to judicial review
d) Right to property

92. “Nemo Judex in Causa Sua” means:
a)  No one can be a judge in his own case
b) No one can be punished without trial
c) No one can refuse to follow the law
d) No one can change the law

93. Judicial activism in India refers to:
a)  The expansion of judicial power beyond what is prescribed by the Constitution
b) Judicial review of administrative actions and executive decisions
c) Judicial restraint in interfering with legislative matters
d) The judiciary only interpreting laws without change

94. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India first apply the principle of judicial activism to protect fundamental rights?
a)  Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
c) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
d) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

95. The discretionary powers of administrative authorities are based on:
a)  Legislative authorization
b) Judicial order
c) Administrative convenience
d) Legislative delegation

96. Which of the following is a limitation on the discretionary powers of administrative authorities?
a)  They must act in accordance with the law
b) They must use powers arbitrarily
c) They may ignore public welfare considerations
d) They can exercise powers without public accountability

97. The doctrine of public accountability in administrative law means that:
a)  Public authorities are accountable only to the executive
b) Public authorities must justify their actions to the public
c) Public authorities are immune from scrutiny
d) Public authorities are answerable only to legislative bodies

98. Which of the following institutions ensures the public accountability of administrative authorities?
a)  Election Commission
b) Lokpal and Lokayukta
c) Legislative Assemblies
d) Supreme Court

99. The concept of “Rule of Law” in administrative law is best described by:
a)  Everyone is subject to the law, including lawmakers
b) The judiciary should be the final authority in all matters
c) Executive powers can only be exercised by the president
d) The Parliament has absolute power

100. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the President authorized to promulgate ordinances during times of emergency?
a)  Article 123
b) Article 324
c) Article 19
d) Article 32

101. Under the principle of vicarious liability, who is generally held responsible for the acts of public servants?
a)  The individual public servant
b) The head of the public body
c) The government or public authority
d) The legislature

102. In which case did the Supreme Court of India establish the principle of “no liability” for public authorities acting within their statutory duties?
a)  M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
b) State of Rajasthan v. Vidyadhar
c) Union of India v. R.C. Sharma
d) State of Orissa v. Sudhansu Sekhar Misra

103. Public law refers to the area of law that:
a)  Regulates the relationship between private individuals
b) Deals with issues of government and its relationship with individuals
c) Is concerned with matters of contract
d) Manages the legal rights of the citizens with private bodies

104. Which of the following is NOT an area of public law?
a)  Constitutional law
b) Administrative law
c) Criminal law
d) Family law

105. The powers of the executive in India are largely derived from:
a)  Judicial decisions
b) Legislative enactments
c) Executive orders
d) The Constitution of India

106. In administrative law, the executive is responsible for implementing:
a)  Only judicial decisions
b) The laws passed by the legislature
c) Directing military operations
d) Only the constitutional amendments

107. The doctrine of separation of powers is intended to:
a)  Concentrate all powers in the hands of the executive
b) Prevent the judiciary from interfering with administrative matters
c) Divide powers between the legislature, executive, and judiciary
d) Abolish all checks on executive powers

108. Which of the following countries influenced the development of the separation of powers doctrine in administrative law?
a)  India
b) United Kingdom
c) United States
d) Canada

109. Which of the following is an example of administrative action?
a)  Enacting a law by the Parliament
b) Passing a bill by the legislature
c) Issuing an executive order by the President
d) Issuing a judgment by the court

110. Administrative actions can be subject to:
a)  Judicial review
b) Legislative enactment
c) Executive veto
d) Public referendum

111. In the case of R.K. Garg v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that:
a)  Delegated legislation is unconstitutional
b) Only Parliament can make laws
c) Delegated legislation is valid as long as it is within the legislative framework
d) The judiciary cannot review executive orders

112. In the case of State of Uttar Pradesh v. Jai Bir Singh, the court held that:
a)  Administrative bodies can act arbitrarily
b) Administrative discretion should be exercised according to the law
c) Judicial review of administrative decisions is prohibited
d) The executive has unlimited powers

113. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) can be filed:
a)  Only by a government body
b) By any individual who is affected by the issue
c) Only by the judiciary
d) Only by public authorities

114. The Supreme Court of India allowed PILs to promote:
a)  Administrative transparency
b) Public welfare and fundamental rights
c) Private contracts
d) Family matters

115. The judicial control over administrative action in India includes:
a)  No control over executive actions
b) The ability to strike down unconstitutional actions
c) The legislative body controlling administrative actions
d) The executive body appointing judges

116. The court can use which of the following to exercise judicial review over administrative actions?
a)  Writs
b) Executive orders
c) Laws passed by the legislature
d) Regulations made by the government

117. Under administrative law, public authorities are generally liable for:
a)  Their actions in good faith
b) Their actions during emergencies only
c) The negligence of their employees in the discharge of duties
d) All their actions regardless of the circumstances

118. Which of the following acts as a shield against claims for damages against administrative bodies?
a)  Sovereign immunity
b) Public interest immunity
c) Ministerial discretion
d) Judicial immunity

119. Administrative agencies may be required to submit their decisions for judicial review to:
a)  The Parliament
b) The Supreme Court
c) The Executive
d) The Legislature

120. The scope of judicial review in administrative law is limited to:
a)  The merits of the decision
b) The process followed to make the decision
c) The political ramifications of the decision
d) Whether the executive has the right to make decisions

121. Regulatory authorities, such as TRAI and SEBI, function under the framework of:
a)  Government mandates
b) Administrative orders
c) Parliamentary Acts
d) Judicial interpretations

122. The primary role of regulatory authorities is to:
a)  Enforce criminal laws
b) Regulate activities within their designated fields
c) Create new laws
d) Represent the government in courts

123. The separation of powers doctrine in administrative law aims to:
a)  Prevent the executive from overstepping its boundaries
b) Give unlimited power to the judiciary
c) Centralize all decision-making power in the legislature
d) Allow executive orders without judicial intervention

124. Which of the following best illustrates the doctrine of separation of powers in the context of administrative law?
a)  Executive carrying out laws passed by the legislature
b) Parliament making laws without judicial review
c) Judiciary intervening in executive and legislative matters
d) Executive issuing laws directly

125. Discretionary powers granted to administrative authorities must be exercised:
a)  Arbitrarily
b) In accordance with established procedures
c) Only during emergencies
d) Based on personal preferences of the decision-maker

126. Which of the following is the main limitation on the use of discretionary powers by administrative authorities?
a)  They must comply with the rule of law
b) They can only be exercised by the highest authority
c) They can be exercised without any judicial review
d) They can be exercised only during non-working hours

127. Administrative tribunals are set up to:
a)  Review laws passed by the legislature
b) Hear appeals against judicial decisions
c) Resolve disputes between citizens and administrative agencies
d) Make laws related to governance

128. The decision of an administrative tribunal can be appealed to:
a)  The Supreme Court
b) The High Court
c) The District Court
d) The Parliament

129. The doctrine of legitimate expectation holds that:
a)  The government must fulfill its promises made to individuals
b) The executive can change the laws at any time
c) The judiciary cannot review government actions
d) The government is not accountable to the public

130. Legitimate expectation is relevant when there is:
a)  A clear promise or established practice
b) A temporary suspension of laws
c) A political declaration
d) None of the above

131. Judicial review of administrative decisions can be done on the grounds of:

a)  Illegality

b) Procedural irregularity

c) Unreasonableness

d) All of the above

132. ‘Administrative law is a law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action’. This definition is given by
A. ivor jennings
B. k c davis
C. h wr wade
D. cessare becarria

133. Which of the following is not the meaning of ‘Rule of law’ according to A V Dicey
A. supremacy of law
B. equality before law
C. pre-dominance of legal spirit
D. wide discretionary powers

134. Which one of the following is NOT the drawback concept of Rule of Law as given by A V Dicey
A. failure to distinguish between arbitrary power discretionary power
B. misunderstood the real nature of droit administratif
C. did not recognise the existence of administrative law in england
D. did not support supremacy of law

135. The functions of the executive can be classified as
A. delegated legislation
B. quasi judicial function
C. discretionary functions
D. all of the above

136. Which of the following is true?
A. the legislative order has to be published
B. for quasi judicial decisions reasons may not be given
C. the duty to give reasons applies to legislative orders
D. the administrative powers cannot be sub delegated

137. Which of the following is not held to be a quasi- judicial function
A. determination of citizenship
B. disciplinary proceedings against students
C. determination of disqualification of members of parliament
D. an order of preventive detention

138. ‘Delegatus non protest delgare’ means
A. the delegate not protest against the authority
B. the delegate does not have potential for making laws
C. the delegate cannot further delegate
D. the delegate can further delegate

139. The principle that by exercising the power of modification the delegate cannot change the legislative policy was developed in the case of
A. r v burah
B. delhi laws act 1912, re air 1951 sc
C. ram jawaya kapur v state of punjab 1955 sc
D. none of the above

140. Which of the functions may not be delegated
A. commencement
B. inclusion and exclusion
C. application of existing laws
D. essential legislative functions

141. Which of the following is correct definition of ‘Audi alteram partem’?
A. listening to the appeal
B. right of fair hearing
C. right to know reasons of decision
D. all of the above

142. Which of the following is true when a government contract which does not conform to the provisions of Art 299 of the Constitution?
A. the contract is not enforceable in court against the parties
B. the contract is voidable at the option of both the parties
C. the contract is void
D. r s d panchal, asst prof , dcll

143. Which of the following is write definition of the phrase Nemo judex in causa sua
A. no man is capable of rendering judgement on himself
B. no man shall be a judge in his own cause
C. no man can punish himself
D. proper justice can be done if the judge is related to the party

144. Which of the following is not a control on delegated legislation
A. judicial
B. legislative
C. doctrine of ultra vires
D. doctrine of lifting of veil

145. Which of the following is not the ground of procedural ultra vires
A. non publication of rules
B. no consultation
C. sub delegation
D. none of the above

146. Principles of natural justice are NOT applicable against which of the following actions?
A. administrative actions
B. rule making action
C. quasi judicial actions
D. judicial process

147. ‘Principles of natural justice are applicable even when the statute is silent …….they do not supplant law of the land but supplement it’. this was held in which case?
A. a k kraipak v union of india
B. m c mehta v union of india
C. a k gopalan v union of india
D. none of the above

148. Which of the following is NOT a type of bias
A. pecuniary bias
B. personal bias
C. judicial obstinacy
D. none of the above

149. When a personal hearing is given by one officer and order is passed by another officer, which of the following principle/s of natural justice is/are violated
A. rule against bias
B. right to hearing
C. reasoned decision
D. all of the above

150. The Administrative tribunal have been recognised under which of the following articles of the constitution
A. art136 and art 227
B. art 323 a and 323 b
C. all of the above
D. art 32

151. Which of the following statements is true?
A. all courts are tribunals but all tribunals are not courts
B. tribunals are not bound by the decisions of supreme court
C. a tribunal is established by government
D. tribunals are not bound by principles of natural justice

152. Excess or abuse of discretion can be through which of the following grounds
A. living out relevant consideration
B. arbitrary action
C. exceeding jurisdiction
D. all of the above

153. The case of Air India v Nergesh Meerza relating to termination of service on ground of first pregnancy is a classic example of
A. acting under dictation
B. unreasonableness
C. excess of jurisdiction
D. non observance of principles of natural justice

154. The institution of ombudsman originated in 1809 at
A. france
B. sweden
C. germany
D. australia

155. ‘Administrative law is a law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action’. This definition is given by
A. ivor jennings
B. k c davis
C. h wr wade
D. cessare becarria

156. Which of the following is FALSE statement?
A. the primary function of administrative law is to restrict the governmental powers
B. the administrative law seeks to protect private interest and rights from encroachment of State
C. administrative law governs relation between Government and citizens
D. administrative law is the law concerning organisation and functions of government at rest

157. Which of the following is not the meaning of ‘Rule of law’ according to A V Dicey
A. supremacy of law
B. equality before law
C. pre-dominance of legal spirit
D. wide discretionary powers

158. A V Dicey criticized which legal system?
A. english legal system
B. french legal system
C. australian legal system
D. american legal system

159. Which one of the following is NOT the drawback concept of Rule of Law as given by A V Dicey
A. failure to distinguish between arbitrary power discretionary power
B. misunderstood the real nature of droit administratif
C. did not recognise the existence of administrative law in england
D. did not support supremacy of law

160. ……………….. is considered to be the doctrinal barrier for development of Administrative law in USA
A. rule of law
B. separation of powers
C. doctrine of pleasure
D. henry viii clause

161. The doctrine of Separation Of Power was systematically propounded by
A. montesquieu in his book the spirit of laws
B. plato in his book the social contract
C. aristotle in his book the spirit of laws
D. montesquieu in his book the constitution

162. Doctrine of separation of powers means
A. one organ of the government should not exercise the function of the other
B. one organ of the government should not control or interfere with the exercise of its functions by another organ
C. same persons should not form part of more than one of the three organs of the government
D. all of the above

163. The delegated legislation means……………..Which of the following is false?
A. the exercise by subordinate agency of legislative power delegated to it
B. the subsidiary rules made by the subordinate authorities in persons of the power conferred
C. the power of central government to make rules and regulations authorised by the parent act
D. the amendment made to the act to suit the changing conditions

164. The principle that by exercising the power of modification the delegate cannot change the legislative policy was developed in the case of
A. r v burah
B. delhi laws act 1912, re air 1951 sc
C. ram jawaya kapur v state of punjab 1955 sc
D. none of the above

165. Which of the following functions are permissible delegations
A. future acts
B. imposition of tax
C. supplying of details
D. ouster of jurisdiction of court

166. Which of the following is/are the requisite conditions for a contract made in the exercise of executive power of the centre?
A. the contract must be expressed to be made by the president
B. the contract is to be executed in such manner and by such person as the president may direct
C. the contract must be entered on behalf of the president
D. all of the above

167. Which of the following is true when a government contract which does not conform to the provisions of Art 299 of the Constitution?
A. the contract is not enforceable in court against the parties
B. the contract is voidable at the option of both the parties
C. the contract is void
D. none of the above

168. Which of the following is write definition of the phrase Nemo judex in causa sua
A. no man is capable of rendering judgement on himself
B. no man shall be a judge in his own cause
C. no man can punish himself
D. proper justice can be done if the judge is related to the party

169. Which of the following is NOT the ground for substantive ultra vires?
A. where parent act is unconstitutional
B. where parent act delegates essential legislative functions
C. where delegated legislation is arbitrary
D. where mandatory consultation process is not complied with

170. Principles of natural justice are NOT applicable against which of the following actions?
A. administrative actions
B. rule making action
C. quasi judicial actions
D. judicial process

171. ‘Principles of natural justice are applicable even when the statute is silent …….they do not supplant law of the land but supplement it’. this was held in which case?
A. a k kraipak v union of india
B. m c mehta v union of india
C. a k gopalan v union of india
D. none of the above

172. Which of the following is NOT an essential component of the doctrine of Audi alteram partem?
A. right of notice
B. oral hearing
C. reasoned decision
D. both a and b

173. When personal hearing is given by one officer and order is passed by another officer, which of the following principle/s of natural justice is/are violated
A. rule against bias
B. right to hearing
C. reasoned decision
D. all of the above

174. The Administrative tribunal have been recognised under which of the following articles of the constitution
A. art136 and art 227
B. art 323 a and 323 b
C. all of the above
D. art 32

175. Acting under dictation, non-application of mind, imposing fetters on discretion, sub delegation are examples of which of the following
A. excess or abuse of discretion
B. failure to exercise discretion
C. order based on mixed consideration
D. none of the above

176. Excess or abuse of discretion can be through which of the following grounds
A. living out relevant consideration
B. arbitrary action
C. exceeding jurisdiction
D. all of the above

177. The case of Air India v Nergesh Meerza relating to termination of service on ground of first pregnancy is a classic example of
A. acting under dictation
B. unreasonableness
C. excess of jurisdiction
D. non observance of principles of natural justice

178. Which of the following is NOT an essential to issue writ of mandamus
A. legal duty of authority
B. refusal to do the duty
C. legal right of the petitioner
D. it lies against private individual

179. When the court finds that the order is suffering from error apparent on face of the record, which of the following writs can be issued?
A. writ of habeas corpus
B. writ of mandamus
C. writ of certiorari
D. writ of quo warranto

180. The tortious liability of the government is recognised in the Indian constitution by
A. art 298
B. art 294
C. art 323
D. art 299

181. The tortious liability of the State was NOT recognised in which of the following cases?
A. state of rajasthan vs vidyawati
B. kasturi lal vs state of uttar pradesh
C. state of gujarat vs memon mohammed haji
D. railway board vs chandrima das

182. The public corporation can be held liable under which of the following the liability/ies?
A. Liability in contracts
B. Liability in torts
C. Liability for crimes
D. All of the above

183. Which of the following statements are false?
1 The Public Corporation can be sued in the court of law
2 Public Corporation is not ‘State’ under Art 12
3 The doctrine of ultra vires is applicable to public corporations
4 Servants of the government company are civil servants under article 311 of the constitution?
A. 1, 4 are false
B. 2 and 4 are false
C. 2 and 3 are false
D. None of the above

184. Provision with respect to tribunals were added by ______ amendment Act 6
A. 44th
B. 24th
C. 42nd
D. 25th

185. Doctorine of separation of powers was systematically formulated by___
A. Plato
B. Montesquine
C. Dicey
D. Aristotle

186. ___ are the following statements is true
A. Delegated legislative cannot have retrospective effect
B. Delegated legislative can have retrospective effect, if authorised by the Act or Statute.
C. Delegated legislative can have retrospective effect, if not authorised by the Act or Statute.
D. Delegated legislative can have retrospective effect, when it has reasonable and satisfied justification

187. The application of doctrine of vicarious liability in crimes seems to have been activated by a necessity rather than desirability ___ the justification is based on
A. Public policy
B. Failure to supervise
C. Treated as unauthorised
D. Strict liability

188. ________ is popularly known as “ Habeas Corpus Case”.
A. M C Mehta v/s Union of India(1992) I SCC 358.
B. Godavarman Thirumulk Pad v/s Union Of India (1007) 2 SCC 267
C. A D M Jabalpur v/s Shivakant Shukla (1976) 2 SCC 521.
D. Chandrakanta v/s S K Habib (1975) 1 SCC 674

189. Which of the following statement is not correct “Rule of law” means
A. Supremacy of law
B. Equality before law
C. Predominance of legal spirit
D. Supremacy of the judiciary

190. Who selects the Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission
A. The Home Minister
B. The President
C. The Parliment
D. The Supreme Court

191. Doctrine of Locus standi means
A. Writ can be filed by any person
B. Power of courts for judicial review
C. Right of petitioner to file writ petition
D. Discussion of administrative authority

192. In exercise of the power conferred by Article 323A of the Constitution, parliament enacted the Administrative Tribunal Act in
A. 1986
B. 1988
C. 1985
D. 2001

193. Tribunals exercising quasi-judicial functions are not courts and that therefore they are ___
A. Bound to follow rules of evidence
B. Bound to follow the procedure prescribed for trial courts
C. Not to bound to follow the procedure prescribed for trial of actions in courts nor they are bound by strict rules of evidence
D. Bound to follow rules of procedure and strict rules of evidence

194. The Supreme Court or High Court commanding a person or the body to do that which is his or its duty to do it
A. Mandamus
B. Habeas Corpus
C. Prohibition
D. Certiorari

195. The power of the judicial review means
A. The power of courts to define and interpret the constitution
B. The power of the courts to declare null and void any legislative or executive act which is against the provisions of the constitution
C. The power of the judiciary to define and interpret the law
D. The power of the court to legislate when there is no statutory provision

196. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
A. The Supreme court can overrule itself
B. A high Court Can overrule itself
C. Judgements of the Supreme Court bind the lower courts.
D. Judgements of a High Court do not bind on the lower courts of the State.

197. Dicey developed the theory of “Rule of Law” in his classic work in
A. The law and the constitution
B. The sprit of the laws
C. Constitutional law
D. The law and the spirit

198. Delegates non protest delegare means
A. A delegate can further delegate
B. A delegate cannot further delegate
C. Delegation is bad in law
D. Delegation os not provided to delegate

199. Which function cannot be delegated
A. Essential legislative functioning
B. Exclusion.
C. Suspension
D. Commencements

200. The Latin phrase ___ means have the body
A. Mandamus
B. Habeas corpus
C. Prohibition
D. Certiorari

201. “ Quo Warranto” literary means
A. To issue warrant
B. Produce the body
C. What is your authority
D. Can order to execute

202. “ we are under the Constitution but the constitution is what the judges say it is” besides U S A to which one of the following countries cna this be applicable?
A. Switzerland
B. India
C. U.K
D. Russia

203. _____ is the 1st law officer Government of India
A. Chief Justice of India
B. Law Secretary
C. Solicitor General of India
D. Attorney General of India

204. ___ statements implies natural justice
A. The principle of natural justice is followed by the courts
B. Justice delayed is justice denied
C. Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen
D. A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given

205. Public Corporation is ____
A. “hybrid organism” showing some of the feature of a Government department while some of the features of a business company,
B. A Government department only
C. A business company
D. Not an independent corporate personality.

206. Ombudsman means
A. An officer of the Court
B. An officer of the executive
C. An officer of the parliament
D. An agent of the judiciary

207. Under ______ article /articles, the High Court and The Supreme Court can issue Writs
A. Article 44 and 45
B. Article 123 and 213
C. Article 32 and 226
D. Article 53 and 153

208. Delegated legislation means delegislation of power
A. From executive to judiciary
B. From minister to executive
C. From judiciary to legislature
D. From legislature to executive

209. The theory of natural justice is based upon two principle, one of which is Nemo debet esse judex in propria causa, which means,
A. No one should be condemned unheard
B. King can do no wrong
C. The same person should not form part of more than one of the three organs
D. No man should be made a judge in his own cause

210. “ultra Virus” literally means
A. Excessive delegation
B. Beyond powers
C. Violation of fundamental rights
D. inconsistent

211. Ombudsman as an institution, was first set up in
A. England
B. France
C. India
D. Sweden

212. Tick the true statement of Natural justice
A. A public body shall not make a decision which is so absurd that no reasonable authority could ever have made to it.
B. A public body shall not act in good faith
C. A public body shall direct itself properly
D. No man is to be a judge in his own cause and that all the parties to a dispute shall be fairly heard.

213. Which of the following statement is the key principle of Ridge v/s Baldwin (1964)
A. The rules of natural justice apply only to the proceedings of courts and tribunals
B. The rules of natural justice apply to all public bodies
C. Proportionality will be applicable whenever a court is deciding whether rules of natural justice have been breached
D. The rules of natural justice are capable of applying in principle where an administrative body acts judicially.

214. ______ defines administrative law as the law relating to administration, it determines the organisation, powers and the duties of Administrative authorities.
A. Dicey
B. Keneth culp davis
C. Sir Ivor Jennings
D. Upendra

215. Administrative law is a branch of _______
A. Private law
B. Public law
C. Property law
D. Procedural law

216. Origin of the concept of Droit Administratiff is
A. U S A
B. U.K
C. GERMANY
D. FRANCE

217. The basic concept of delegated legislation denote the delegation of ___ powers
A. Voting power
B. Rule making power
C. Administrative power
D. Judicial power

218. _____ is the “Rule of Law” choose 1
A. Everyone but the president must follow the law
B. Government does not have to follow the law
C. All laws must be the same in every state
D. Everyone must follow the law

219. _______ stops one branch of government from becoming too powerful (choose one)
A. The president
B. Checks and balances
C. The people
D. Freedom of speech

220. ______ is incharge of the executive branch
A. Speaker of the house
B. The Prime Minister
C. The President
D. The Chief Justice

221. “constitutional law is concerned with the organisation and functions of Government at test, which administrative law, is concerned with that organisation and those function” this statement was given by
A. Austin
B. Solmond
C. M P Jain
D. Hood Phillips

222. Writ of quo warranto can be issued against
A. Any person
B. Public office, who wish to assume the office
C. Public officer, who is holding public office
D. Public office, who has ceased to hold the public office

223. “Corporate personality is a mere procedural form which is used to work out a convenient wy for immediate purpose” It was stated by
A. Hooland
B. Austin
C. Strke
D. Honfield

224. “Common law is essentially a judge made law” this opinion was expressed by
A. Pollock
B. Austin
C. Paton
D. Salmond

225. Tick the incorrect answer
A. Laissez-faire is an economic philosophy of controlled market
B. The theory of laissez-faire was developed by the French Physiocrate during the 18th century
C. Laissez-faire is considered as a path to economic prosperity
D. Laissez-faire is an economic philosophy of free market capitralism

226. Tick the incorrect answer Delegated legislation may be classified into 4 types
A. Title based classification
B. Discretion based classification
C. Purpose base classification
D. Control based classification

227. Tick the correct answer
A. Delegated legislation has become inevitable but the question of control has become crucial
B. Delegated legislation can be avoided absolutely
C. Sub-delegation of delegated legislation is always better
D. Conditional legislation can control the delegated legislation

228. Administrative tribunal exercise
A. Purely administrative function
B. Purely judicial functions
C. Purely legislative functions
D. Quasi judicial functions

229. ___ is the effect of violation of the rule “Audi Alteram Partem” on an administrative action
A. Mere irregularity
B. Null and void
C. An illegality
D. Voidable

230. The writ of certiorari necessarily implies that;
A. An error of fact, cannot be corrected
B. An error of law apparent on the face of the record can be corrected
C. Violation of natural justice
D. The delegated legislation is violation of provision of parent Act

231. Which part of the judgement establishes the precedent that is to be followed by lower courts?
A. The Ratio Decidendi
B. The facts that are identified as binding by the judge
C. The section of the judgement entitled “ precedent”
D. The obiter Dicta

232. Which of the following is NOT a form of delegated legislation?
a)  orders in court
b) statutory instruments
c) public bills
d) bye-laws

233. Which of the following is the highest form of law in England?
a)  common law
b) legislation
c) case law
d) equity

232. Which of the following is not a source of Indian Administrative Law?
a)  Legislation
b) Case law
c) Custom
d) Parliamentary debates

233. Administrative law primarily deals with the relationship between:
a)  The government and the judiciary
b) The government and the citizens
c) The government and the legislature
d) The government and the executive

234. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the separation of powers?
a)  Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 50
d) Article 73

235. The principle of natural justice includes:
a)  Audi alteram partem
b) Nemo judex in causa sua
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

236. The doctrine of ultra vires refers to:
a)  Acts done beyond the powers conferred by law
b) Acts done within the powers conferred by law
c) Acts done by public servants
d) None of the above

237. The doctrine of promissory estoppel is applicable against:
a)  Individuals
b) Private entities
c) Government and public authorities
d) None of the above

238. The Administrative Tribunals in India were established under which constitutional provision?
a)  Article 323A
b) Article 323B
c) Article 323C
d) Article 323D

239. The power of judicial review is a part of:
a)  Legislative power
b) Executive power
c) Judicial power
d) None of the above

240. The Right to Information Act, 2005 is based on which fundamental right?
a)  Right to equality
b) Right to freedom of speech and expression
c) Right to life and personal liberty
d) Right to property

241. Who appoints the Central Vigilance Commissioner in India?
a)  The President
b) The Prime Minister
c) The Chief Justice of India
d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

242. The concept of “stare decisis” means:
a)  Let the decision stand
b) The decision of the lower court is binding on the higher court
c) The decision of the higher court is binding on the lower court
d) None of the above

243. Which of the following is not a principle of natural justice?
a)  Bias
b) Audi alteram partem
c) Right to legal representation
d) None of the above

244. The doctrine of legitimate expectation is based on which principle?
a)  Procedural fairness
b) Legality
c) Equality
d) Reasonableness

245. Administrative law provides remedies in the form of:
a)  Damages
b) Injunctions
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

246. The doctrine of “vicarious liability” holds that:
a)  The government is liable for the acts of its employees
b) The government is not liable for the acts of its employees
c) The employees are liable for their own acts
d) None of the above

247. Which of the following is not a ground for judicial review?
a)  Illegality
b) Irrationality
c) Unreasonableness
d) Non-compliance with procedural requirements

248. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) has the power to adjudicate disputes related to:
a)  Service matters of central government employees
b) Service matters of state government employees
c) Service matters of employees of public sector undertakings
d) All of the above

249. The concept of “legitimate expectation” was first recognized in which case?
a)  A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
b) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
d) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation

250. The concept of “reasoned decision” implies that:
a)  The decision-maker must provide reasons for the decision
b) The decision must be supported by evidence
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

251. The concept of “equality before law” is enshrined in which article of the Indian Constitution?
a)  Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 32

252. The doctrine of “legislative competence” refers to:
a)  The power of the legislature to make laws within its jurisdiction
b) The power of the judiciary to interpret laws
c) The power of the executive to implement laws
d) None of the above

253. The concept of “natural justice” is based on the principle of:
a)  Procedural fairness
b) Substantive fairness
c) Equality
d) Reasonableness

254. The power of judicial review is derived from which article of the Indian Constitution?
a)  Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 32
d) Article 44

255. The Central Information Commission (CIC) is responsible for:
a)  Adjudicating appeals and complaints against public authorities under the Right to Information Act
b) Appointing Information Commissioners
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

256. The concept of “judicial activism” refers to:
a)  Judicial interpretation of laws in a broad and progressive manner
b) Judicial interference in the executive and legislative functions
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

257. The power of the President to grant pardons is a part of:
a)  Legislative power
b) Executive power
c) Judicial power
d) None of the above

258. The power of the government to acquire private property for public purposes is derived from:
a)  Article 19
b) Article 21
c) Article 32
d) None of the above

259. The concept of “public interest litigation” (PIL) allows:
a)  Any individual to file a petition in court on behalf of a disadvantaged group
b) Only lawyers to file petitions in court on behalf of disadvantaged groups
c) Only NGOs to file petitions in court on behalf of disadvantaged groups
d) None of the above

260. The power of the government to make rules and regulations is derived from:
a)  Article 32
b) Article 73
c) Article 162
d) None of the above

261. Which of the following is not a principle of natural justice?
a)  Bias
b) Audi alteram partem
c) Legitimate expectation
d) None of the above

262. The doctrine of “legitimate expectation” is based on the principle of:
a)  Procedural fairness
b) Substantive fairness
c) Equality
d) Reasonableness

263. The doctrine of “ultra vires” refers to:
a)  Acts done beyond the powers conferred by law
b) Acts done within the powers conferred by law
c) Acts done by public servants
d) None of the above

264. The power of the government to delegate its legislative functions is derived from:
a)  Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 245
d) Article 368

265. Which of the following is not a characteristic of administrative law?
a)  It is a branch of public law
b) It governs the powers and procedures of administrative agencies
c) It primarily deals with the relationship between the government and the citizens
d) It is a branch of private law

266. The power of judicial review is a part of:
a)  Legislative power
b) Executive power
c) Judicial power
d) None of the above

267. The concept of “separation of powers” implies that:
a)  The government is divided into three separate branches
b) The judiciary is independent of the executive and the legislature
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

268. The doctrine of “ultra vires” means:
a)  Acts done beyond the powers conferred by law
b) Acts done within the powers conferred by law
c) Acts done by public servants
d) None of the above

269. The doctrine of “promissory estoppel” is applicable against:
a)  Individuals
b) Private entities
c) Government and public authorities
d) None of the above

270. The Administrative Tribunals in India were established under which constitutional provision?
a)  Article 323A
b) Article 323B
c) Article 323C
d) Article 323D

271. The principle of natural justice includes:
a)  Audi alteram partem
b) Nemo judex in causa sua
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

272. Which of the following is not a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution?
a)  Right to equality
b) Right to property
c) Right to freedom of speech and expression
d) Right to life and personal liberty

273. The Right to Information Act, 2005 is based on which fundamental right?
a)  Right to equality
b) Right to freedom of speech and expression
c) Right to life and personal liberty
d) Right to property

274. Who appoints the Central Vigilance Commissioner in India?
a)  The President
b) The Prime Minister
c) The Chief Justice of India
d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

275. The concept of “stare decisis” means:
a)  Let the decision stand
b) The decision of the lower court is binding on the higher court
c) The decision of the higher court is binding on the lower court
d) None of the above

276. The power of the government to acquire private property for public purposes is subject to:
a)  Reasonable compensation
b) Due process of law
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

277. The principle of natural justice requires that the decision-maker must be:
a)  Impartial
b) Independent
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

278. The power of judicial review allows the courts to:
a)  Review the constitutionality of laws and government actions
b) Review the decisions of administrative authorities
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

279. The concept of “legitimate expectation” is based on the principle of:
a)  Procedural fairness
b) Substantive fairness
c) Equality
d) Reasonableness

280. The doctrine of “ultra vires” refers to acts done by administrative authorities that are:
a)  Beyond their legal powers
b) Within their legal powers
c) Beyond the scope of administrative law
d) None of the above

281. The power of judicial review is a part of:
a)  Legislative power
b) Executive power
c) Judicial power
d) None of the above

282. The Central Information Commission (CIC) is responsible for:
a)  Adjudicating appeals and complaints against public authorities under the Right to Information Act
b) Appointing Information Commissioners
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

283. The power of the President to grant pardons is a part of:
a)  Legislative power
b) Executive power
c) Judicial power
d) None of the above

284. The power of the government to acquire private property for public purposes is derived from:
a)  Article 19
b) Article 21
c) Article 32
d) None of the above

285. The concept of “public interest litigation” (PIL) allows:
a)  Any individual to file a petition in court on behalf of a disadvantaged group
b) Only lawyers to file petitions in court on behalf of disadvantaged groups
c) Only NGOs to file petitions in court on behalf of disadvantaged groups
d) None of the above

286. The power of the government to make rules and regulations is derived from:
a)  Article 32
b) Article 73
c) Article 162
d) None of the above

287. Which of the following is not a principle of natural justice?
a)  Bias
b) Audi alteram partem
c) Legitimate expectation
d) None of the above

288. The doctrine of “legitimate expectation” is based on the principle of:
a)  Procedural fairness
b) Substantive fairness
c) Equality
d) Reasonableness

289. The doctrine of “ultra vires” refers to:
a)  Acts done beyond the powers conferred by law
b) Acts done within the powers conferred by law
c) Acts done by public servants
d) None of the above

290. The power of the government to delegate its legislative functions is derived from:
a)  Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 245
d) Article 368

291. The concept of “natural justice” is based on the principle of:
a)  Procedural fairness
b) Substantive fairness
c) Equality
d) Reasonableness

292. The power of judicial review is derived from which article of the Indian Constitution?
a)  Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 32
d) Article 44

293. The Central Information Commission (CIC) is responsible for:
a)  Adjudicating appeals and complaints against public authorities under the Right to Information Act
b) Appointing Information Commissioners
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

294. The concept of “judicial review” refers to:
a)  The power of the judiciary to interpret laws
b) The power of the judiciary to review the actions of the executive and legislative branches
c) The power of the judiciary to review the decisions of administrative authorities
d) None of the above

295. The power of the President to grant pardons is a part of:
a)  Legislative power
b) Executive power
c) Judicial power
d) None of the above

296. The power of the government to acquire private property for public purposes is derived from:
a)  Article 19
b) Article 21
c) Article 32
d) None of the above

297. The concept of “public interest litigation” (PIL) allows:
a)  Any individual to file a petition in court on behalf of a disadvantaged group
b) Only lawyers to file petitions in court on behalf of disadvantaged groups
c) Only NGOs to file petitions in court on behalf of disadvantaged groups
d) None of the above

298. The power of the government to make rules and regulations is derived from:
a)  Article 32
b) Article 73
c) Article 162
d) None of the above

299. Which of the following is not a principle of natural justice?
a)  Bias
b) Audi alteram partem
c) Legitimate expectation
d) None of the above

300. The doctrine of “legitimate expectation” is based on the principle of:
a)  Procedural fairness
b) Substantive fairness
c) Equality
d) Reasonableness

301. The doctrine of “ultra vires” refers to:
a)  Acts done beyond the powers conferred by law
b) Acts done within the powers conferred by law
c) Acts done by public servants
d) None of the above

302. The power of the government to delegate its legislative functions is derived from:
a)  Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 245
d) Article 368

303. The concept of “legislative competence” refers to:
a)  The power of the legislature to make laws within its jurisdiction
b) The power of the judiciary to interpret laws
c) The power of the executive to implement laws
d) None of the above

304. The concept of “equality before law” is enshrined in which article of the Indian Constitution?
a)  Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 32

305. The power of judicial review is derived from which article of the Indian Constitution?
a)  Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 32
d) Article 44

306. The concept of “natural justice” is based on the principle of:
a)  Procedural fairness
b) Substantive fairness
c) Equality
d) Reasonableness

307. The Central Information Commission (CIC) is responsible for:
a)  Adjudicating appeals and complaints against public authorities under the Right to Information Act
b) Appointing Information Commissioners
c) Both a)  and b)
d) None of the above

308. The doctrine of “res judicata” means:
a)  A matter already decided cannot be litigated again
b) The decision of a higher court is binding on a lower court
c) The decision of a lower court is binding on a higher court
d) None of the above

309. The power of the President to grant pardons is a part of:
a)  Legislative power
b) Executive power
c) Judicial power
d) None of the above

310. The power of the government to acquire private property for public purposes is derived from:
a)  Article 19
b) Article 21
c) Article 32
d) None of the above

311. The concept of “public interest litigation” (PIL) allows:
a)  Any individual to file a petition in court on behalf of a disadvantaged group
b) Only lawyers to file petitions in court on behalf of disadvantaged groups
c) Only NGOs to file petitions in court on behalf of disadvantaged groups
d) None of the above

312. The power of the government to make rules and regulations is derived from:
a)  Article 32
b) Article 73
c) Article 162
d) None of the above

313. Which of the following is not a principle of natural justice?
a)  Bias
b) Audi alteram partem
c) Legitimate expectation
d) None of the above

314. The doctrine of “legitimate expectation” is based on the principle of:
a)  Procedural fairness
b) Substantive fairness
c) Equality
d) Reasonableness

315. The doctrine of “ultra vires” refers to:
a)  Acts done beyond the powers conferred by law
b) Acts done within the powers conferred by law
c) Acts done by public servants
d) None of the above

316. The power of the government to delegate its legislative functions is derived from:
a)  Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 245
d) Article 368

317. The concept of “natural justice” is based on the principle of:
a)  Procedural fairness
b) Substantive fairness
c) Equality
d) Reasonableness

318. The power of judicial review is derived from which article of the Indian Constitution?
a)  Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 32
d) Article 44